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West Bengal P.C.S. Miscellaneous Services Recruitment Exam Solved Paper

2010-03-27T22:32:00.000-07:00

West Bengal

P.C.S. Miscellaneous Services

Recruitment

Exam Solved Paper

Arithmetic

1. The diagonal of a square is 4√ 2 cm. The diagonal of another square whose

area is double that of the first square is—

(A) 8 cm

(B) 8√2 cm

(D) 16 cm

Ans : (A)

2. A train starts with the speed of 70 km/hr with its speed increasing every two

hours by 10 km/hr. In how many hours will it cover 345 kms ?

(A) 2¼ hrs

(B) 4 hrs 5 mins

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

3. How long does a train 110 metres long running at the speed of 72 km/hr take

to cross a bridge 132 metres in length ?

(A) 9•8 sec

(B) 12•1 sec

(D) 14•3 sec

Ans : (B)

4. A boatman goes 2 km against the current of the stream in 1 hour and goes 1 km

along the current in 10 minutes. How long will it take to go 5 km in stationary

water ?

(A) 40 mins

(B) 1 hr

(D) 1 hr 30 mins

Ans : (C)

5. The value of

is—

(A) 2

(B) 3/2

(D) 3 6/13

Ans : (A)

6. The ratio of the incomes of A and B is 5 : 4 and the ratio of their

expenditure is 3 : 2. If at the end of each year, each saves Rs. 1600, then

the income of A is—

(A) Rs. 3400

(B) Rs. 3600

(D) Rs. 4400

Ans : (C)

7. Half of 1 per cent is equal to—

(A) 0•005

(B) 0•05

(D) 0•2

Ans : (A)

8. If 3/5th of a cistern is filled in 1 minute, how much more time will be

required to fill the rest of it ?

(A) 40 sec

(B) 30 sec

(D) 24 sec

Ans : (A)

9. In what ratio must water be mixed with milk costing Rs. 12 per litre to

obtain a mixture worth Rs. 8 per litre ?

(A) 1 : 2

(B) 2 : 1

(D) 3 : 2

Ans : (A)

10. A number was divided successively in order by 4, 5 and 6. The remainders

were respectively 2, 3 and 4. The number is—

(A) 214

(B) 476

(D) 1908

Ans : (A)

11. The difference between simple and compound interest @ 10% per annum on a

sum of Rs. 1000 after 4 years is—

(A) Rs. 31

(B) Rs. 32•10

(D) Rs. 64•10

Ans : (D)

12. The maximum length of a pencil that can by kept in a rectangular box of

dimensions 8 cm × 6 cm × 2 cm, is—

(A) 2√13 cm

(B) 2√14 cm

(D) 10√2 cm

Ans : (C)

13. What is the smallest number by which 3600 be divided to make it a perfect

cube ?

(A) 9

(B) 450

(D) 300

Ans : (B)

14. At what time between 9 and 10 o’clock will the hands of a watch be

together ?

(A) 45 min past 9

(B) 50 min past 9

(D) 48 2/11 min past 9

Ans : (C)

15. A two-digit number is such that the product of the digits is 8. When 18 is

added to the number, then the number is reversed. The number is—

(A) 18

(B) 42

(D) 24

Ans : (D)

16. The edges of a cuboid are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and its surface area is

88 cm2 . The volume of the cuboid is—

(A) 24 cm3

(B) 48 cm3

(D) 120 cm3

Ans : (B)

17. In a school 10% of the boys are same in number as ¼ th of the girls. What

is the ratio of boys to girls in the school ?

(A) 3 : 2

(B) 5 : 2

(D) 4 : 3

Ans : (B)

18. X got 30% concession on the labelled price of an article and sold it for

Rs. 8750 with 25% profit on the price she bought. What was the labelled price

(A) Rs. 16,000

(B) Rs. 12,000

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

19. A vendor loses the selling price of 4 oranges on selling 36 oranges. Her

loss per cent is—

(A) 10%

(B) 11 1/9 %

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

20. In a camp, 95 men had provisions for 200 days. After 5 days, 30 men left

the camp. For how many days will the remaining food last now ?

(A) 180

(B) 285

(D) 28•5

Ans : (B)

21. A dog takes 4 leaps for every 5 leaps of a hare but 3 leaps of a dog are

equal to 4 leaps of the hare. Compare their speeds in terms of ratio of their

speed.

(A) Dog’s speed : hare’s speed = 15 : 16

(B) Dog’s speed : hare’s speed = 16 : 15

(D) Dog’s speed : hare’s speed = 5 : 3

Ans : (B)

22. The ratio of the speeds of two trains is 7 : 8. If the second train runs

400 kms in 4 hours, then the speed of the first train is—

(A) 70 km/hr

(B) 75 km/hr

(D) 87•5 km/hr

Ans : (D)

23. In 10 years, A will be twice as old as B was 10 years ago. If A is now 9

years older than B, the present age of B is—

(A)29years

(B) 19 years

(D) 39 years

Ans : (D)

24. Three taps A, B and C can fill a tank in 12, 15 and 20 hours respectively.

If A is open all the time and B and C are open for one hour each alternately,

the tank will be full in—

(A) 6 hours

(B) 6 2/3 hours

(D) 7 ½ hours

Ans : (C)

25. The present ages of three persons are in proportions 4 : 7 : 9. Eight

years ago, the sum of their ages was 56. Find their present ages (in years)—

(A) 20, 35, 45

(B) 8, 20, 28

(D) 20, 36, 46

Ans : (C)

L.I.C. Apprentice Development officers Recruitment Solved Paper 2009

2010-03-21T00:27:00.000-07:00

L.I.C. Apprentice Development officers Recruitment Solved Paper 2009

General Knowledge

1. Who is the highest Law officer of a State ?

(A) Attorney General

(B) Secretary General Law Department

(D) Solicitor General

Ans : (C)

2. The place for Amritsar was given by the Mughal Emperor Akbar to—

(A) Guru Amar Das

(B) Guru Hari Kishan

(D) Guru Tegh Bahadur

Ans : (C)

3. Which section of IPC is applicable in a case of death due to negligence ?

(A) 304 Part-I

(B) 304 Part-II

(D) 307

Ans : (C)

4. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched ?

(A) Sabarigiri Project —Gujarat

(B) Sharavathy Project —Karnataka

(D) Balimela Project —Orissa

Ans : (A)

5. The Olympic Flame symbolises—

(A) Speed, perfection and strength

(B) Unity among various nations of the world

(D) Sports as a means of securing harmony among the nations

Ans : (C)

6. Which of the following deals with economic offences ?

(A) TADA

(B) MISA

(D) COFEPOSA

Ans : (D)

7. The earth rotates on its axis from—

(A) East to West

(B) West to East

(D) South to North

Ans : (B)

8. A Cricket match is being telecasted live from Delhi. If the match commences at 10 a.m. at What time would viewers in London have to tune in their sets ?

(A) 10 a.m.

(B) 4·30 a.m.

(D) 10 p.m.

Ans : (B)

9. ‘The United Kingdom’ consists of England and—

(A) Northern Ireland, Scotland and Wales

(B) Northern Ireland, Palma and Iceland

(D) Scotland, Sardinia and Wales

Ans : (A)

10. Which of the following is the publisher of ‘Employment News’ ?

(A) Indian Express Group

(B) Times of India Group

(D) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting

Ans : (D)

11. The states of India having common border with Myanmar are—

(A) Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh

(B) Mizoram, Manipur, Tripura, Meghalya

(D) Assam, Manipur, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh

Ans : (A)

12. In which of the following states ‘Koyana Hydro Electric Power Project’ is located ?

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Maharashtra

(D) Orissa

Ans : (B)

13. The scientist associated with the success of Green Revolution is—

(A) V. R. Rao

(B) J. C. Bose

(D) Norman Borlaug

Ans : (D)

14. The largest coal deposit in India is in—

(A) Damodar Valley

(B) Satpura Valley

(D) Brahmani Valley

Ans : (A)

15. National Highway-2 connects—

(A) Srinagar and Leh

(B) Varanasi and Kanyakumari

(D) Delhi and Kolkata

Ans : (D)

16. The national centre for production of bio-fertilizers is at—

(A) Hyderabad

(B) Ghaziabad

(D) Dehradoon

Ans : (B)

17. Which of the following satellites helps to telecast T.V. Network Programmes all over the country ?

(A) APPLE

(B) Rohini

(D) INSAT–1B

Ans : (D)

18. Which Sports Association of Indian lifted the ban from its players ‘foreign tours’ ?

(A) BCCI

(B) All India Tennis Federation

(D) All India Football Federation

Ans : (A)

19. In which state ‘Kanya Vidyadhan Yojana’ is operational ?

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Haryana

Ans : (A)

20. With which country U.N.O. has an agreement for ‘Oil for food’ ?

(A) Kuwait

(B) Iran

(D) Venezuela

Ans : (C)

21. Where will World Cup Football, 2010 be played ?

(A) South Africa

(B) Mexico

(D) Canada

Ans : (A)

22. Who has declared as ‘Miss India World, 2007’ ?

(A) Puja Gupta

(B) Amrita Pathi

(D) Sarah Jane Dias

Ans : (D)

23. Electron was discovered by—

(A) Rutherford

(B) Bohr

(D) Ramsay

Ans : (C)

24. Which film won the Best Picture in the 79th Annual Academy Award (Oscar Award) 2007 conferred in Feb. 2007 ?

(A) The Departed

(B) The Queen

(D) The Last King of Scotland

Ans : (A)

25. In which country of the world, the largest Buddhist temple is located ?

(A) Japan

(B) Indonesia

(D) India

Ans : (B)

SBI BANK CLERK 2010 SOLVED PAPER

2010-03-21T00:24:00.000-07:00

SBI BANK CLERK 2010 SOLVED PAPER

Numerical Abillity

1. Two numbers are respectively 25% and 20% less than a third number. What percent is the first number of the second.
(A) 5.85%
(B) 75.85%
(C) 80.60%
(D) 93.75%
Ans (D)
2. A pump can fill a tank with water in two hours. Because of a leak in the tank it was taking two 1/3 hours to fill the tank. The leak can drain all the water off the tank in.
(A) 8 hours
(B) 7 hours
(C) 13/3 hours
(D) 14 hours
Ans (D)
3. A can do a peace of work in 4 hours. B and C can do it in 3 hours. A and C can do it in two hours. How long will B take to do it?
(A) 10 hours
(B) 12 hours
(C) 8 hours
(D) 24 hours
Ans (B)
4. The difference between the simple and compound interest on a certain sum of money at 5% rate of interest p.a. for two years is Rs.15. Then the sum is _____
(A) Rs.6500
(B) Rs.5500
(C) Rs.6000
(D) Rs.7000
Ans (C)
5. A sum borrowed under compound interest doubles itself in 10 years. When will it become four fold of itself at the same rate of interest?
(A) 15 years
(B) 20 years
(C) 24 years
(D) 40 years
()Ans (B)
6. The students in three classes are in the ratio of 2:3:5 if 40 students are increased in each class the ratio changes to 4:5:7 if 40 students are increased in each class the ratio changes to 4:5:7 originally the total number of students was _______
(A) 100
(B) 180
(C) 200
(D) 400
Ans (C)
7. The ratio of incomes of two persons is 5:3 and that of their expenditure is 9.5. Find the income of each person if they save Rs.1300 and Rs.900 respectively.
(A) Rs.4000, Rs.2400
(B) Rs.3000, Rs.1800
(C) Rs.5000, Rs.3000
(D) Rs.4500, Rs.2700
Ans (A)
8. A fort has provision for 50 days if after 10 days they are strengthen by 500 men and the remaining food lasts 35 days. How many men were there in the fort initially?
(A) 3500
(B) 3000
(C) 2500
(D) 4000
Ans (A)
9. A number is increased by 20% and then it is decreased by 10%. Find the net increase or decrease in %
(A) 10% increase
(B) 10% decrease
(C) 8%increase
(D) 8% decrease
Ans (C)
10. The product of two positive numbers is 2500 if one number is 4 times the other, the sum of the two numbers is ______
(A) 25
(B) 125
(C) 225
(D) 250
Ans (B)
11. Which of the following is the largest number which is exactly devisable by 7,9 and 15?
(A) 9450
(B) 9765
(C) 9865
(D) 9550
Ans (B)
12. What percent of 5/8 is 8/5?
(A) 100
(B) 64
(C) 256
(D) 1024
Ans (C)
13. 2.3 + 6.5 - 7.1 + 4.9 -1.4 + 8.6 - 5.3?
(A) 8.5
(B) 8.6
(C) 8.7
(D) 8.4
Ans (A)
14. Example of a mathematical statement is ______
(A) (10+8)-9
(B) 2x+3=5
(C) 5<9+3
(D) x+3
Ans (C)
15. If 4x = 10 then X=?
(A) 10-4
(B) 10 X 4
(C) 10 +4
(D) 10/4
Ans (D)
16. a and b are two numbers. The property of a = b then b=a is called _______
(A) Reflexive property
(B) Transitive property
(C) Symmetric property
(D) Associative property
Ans (C)
17. "10 added to 5 times x is equal to 20" in symbolic form is _______
(A) 5(x+10)=20
(B) 5x+10=20
(C) x/5+10=20
(D) 5x-10=20
Ans (B)
18. The point equidistant from the vertices of a triangle is its_____
(A) Orthocentre
(B) Centroid
(C) circumcentre
(D) Incentre
Ans (C)
19. The centroid of a triangle is the point of concurrence of its
(A) angle bisectors
(B) perpendicular bisector
(C) altitudes
(D) medians
Ans (D)
20. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1:2:7 then the triangle is ______
(A) acute angled
(B) obtuse angled
(C) right angled
(D) isosceles
Ans (D)
21. Two sides of a triangle are 8cm and 11cm then the possible third side is____
(A) 1 cm
(B) 2 cm
(C) 3 cm
(D) 4 cm
Ans (D)
22. A triangle always has exactly
(A) one acute angle
(B) at least two acute angles
(C) exactly one right angle
(D) exactly two acute angles
Ans (B)
23. Two trains A and B are running at the speeds of 45 KMPH and 25 KMPH respectively in the same direction. The faster train i.e. train A crosses a Man sitting in the slower train B in 18 secs. Find the length of the train A?
(A) 100 metres
(B) 120 metres
(C) 150 meters
(D) 180 meters
Ans (A)
24. A circular road runs round a circular ground. If the difference between the circumference of the outer circle and inner circle is 44 meters, find the width of road.
(A) 8 meters
(B) 7 meters
(C) 17 meters
(D) 9 meters
Ans (B)
25. A and B started a business in partnership. A invested Rs.2000/- for six months and B invested Rs.1500 for 8 months. What is the share of A in total profit of Rs.510?
(A) Rs.250
(B) Rs.255
(C) Rs.275
(D) Rs.280
Ans (B)

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L.I.C. (ADO) Recruitment Exam 2010 Solved Paper

2010-03-21T00:19:00.000-07:00

L.I.C. (ADO) Recruitment Exam 2010 Solved Paper

English Language

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Politicians and generals talk of military strategies and manoeuvers but something completely different is needed. Stability will come only when economic opportunitiesexist, when youth can find jobs and support families rather than seeking their livelihood in violence. Peace can only be achieved with a withdrawal of foreign troops, sanctions and peace-keepers and the arrival of jobs, productive farms and factories, healthcare and schools. Repeatedly the fragile peace in impoverished countries has broken down because of the lack of economic follow-up. Despite promises of aid, the actual record of international aid to post war reconstruction is deficient.
Once the war ends agencies involved in post war relief efforts fail to understand how to start or restart economic development in a low income setting. Theysquander time, surplus aid funds and opportunities because they are not familiar with local conditions and do not under-stand their point of view. There are distinct phases of outside help to end a conflict. In the first phase focus is on providing food, water, shelter and medicine to refugees i.e., humani-tarian. In the second, emphasis is on the refugees returning home while in the last phase long term investments and strengthening of courts is the main focus.
However once a conflict is over aid agencies sanctioned by the World Bank send study groups instead of requisite personnel. There is a gap of several years before moving from humanitarian relief to economic deve-lopment. By the time such help arrives the war has restarted. It is possible to restart economic develop-ment through targeted ‘quick impact’ initiatives. Most economies in post conflict countries are based on agri-culture. Providing free packages of seeds, fertilizers and low cost equip-ment quickly will ensure that former soldiers will return to their farms and establish their livelihood. But the window of opportunity closes quickly and one has to implement these measures almost immediately.
1. Which of the following is a reason, post conflict reconstruc-tion efforts have failed ?
(A) Aid organizations do not understand issues from the pers-pective of the poor
(B) Rapid economic develop-ment in low income countries
(C) World Bank studies are not valid
(D) International aid organiza-tions become too involved in reconstruction efforts
(E) None of these
2. Where does the problem lie in implementing post war relief measures ?
(A) Aid agencies fail to study the situation
(B) Economic development measures are too rapid
(C) Focus on economic deve-lopment not humanitarian aid
(D) Lack of funds to implement programmes
(E) Lack of essential and quali-fied personnel
3. According to the author how can political stability be achieved ?
(A) Increasing the number of foreign troops in areas of conflict
(B) Depending more on foreign aid
(C) Following recommendations given by the World Bank
(D) Providing economic oppor-tunities
(E) None of these
4. Which of the following is not true in the context of the pas-sage ?
(A) Focus in the first phase of a war is on providing humani-tarian aid
(B) Sanctions are not a means to ensure peace
(C) Adequate time must be taken to plan and implement quick impact strategies
(D) Providing employment to the younger generation will prevent wars
(E) Focus on delivering justice through courts should be in the last phase of conflict aid
5. How can economic development be restarted in an impoverished country ?
(A) Long term studies should be commissioned
(B) Retaining soldiers in the army to ensure law and order
(C) Restrict number of aid agencies to avoid waste
(D) Focusing on agricultural ini-tiatives
(E) Deploying peace keepers in the country
6. What is the benefit of ‘quick impact’ aid ?
(A) Soldiers earn income from the army and their farms
(B) Providing alternate liveli-hood to soldiers before war can restart
(C) Free land is given to soldiers
(D) Price of equipment is low
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 7 and 8) Choose the word that is most nearly thesame in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
7. exist
(A) live (B) fit
(C) create (D) occur
(E) survive
8. squander
(A) lavish (B) spend
(C) displace (D) lose
(E) misuse
Directions—(Q. 9 and 10) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in boldas used in the passage.
9. fragile
(A) weak (B) lasting
(C) long (D) strong
(E) unstable
10. deficient
(A) surplus (B) valued
(C) short (D) secure
(E) repaired
Directions—(Q. 11–15) Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below it—
A. Strict obedience to these rules is called discipline.
B. In the same way, a society where rules are not followed cannot survive for long.
C. Only then a society can be run in an orderly fashion.
D. A society can exist properly only when men living in it agree upon certain rules of conduct.
E. For example, if the people on the road do not obey traffic rules there will be complete disorder and con-fusion.
F. Students must obey their teachers, children their parents, citizens the laws and so on and so forth.
11. Which of the following is the fifth sentence ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) E
(E) F
12. Which of the following is the sixth (Last) sentence ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
(E) E
13. Which of the following is the second sentence ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
(E) E
14. Which of the following is the first sentence ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
(E) E
15. Which of the following is the third sentence ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) E
(E) F
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Pick out the most effective word from among the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully com-plete.
16. She did not like to…………her decision like a dictator on her subordinates.
(A) divulge (B) prompt
(C) enforce (D) deploy
(E) make
17. People unfortunately………that money brings happiness.
(A) assume (B) deny
(C) object (D) rely
(E) conscious
18. The public have………a protest against the new rules of the budget.
(A) organize
(B) demonstrated
(C) compiled
(D) pursued
(E) launched
19. Sarojini Naidu will always be remembered for her……… to the national cause.
(A) blessing
(B) involvement
(C) pursuit
(D) dedication
(E) command
20. Poverty has to be………and the basic necessities of life should be made available to everyone.
(A) destroyed (B) eliminated
(C) finished (D) magnified
(E) considered
Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each of these questions, two of the words are related in some wayi.e., they are similar or opposites. Pick out the option which represents that pair.
21. 1. moderate 2. easy
3. significant 4. strenuous
(A) 2–4 (B) 1–2
(C) 1–3 (D) 2–3
(E) 3–4
22. 1. focus 2. trivial
3. vital 4. site
(A) 1–2 (B) 2–4
(C) 1–3 (D) 3–4
(E) 2–3
23. 1. defer 2. dispute
3. prefer 4. challenge
(A) 2–3 (B) 1–3
(C) 2–1 (D) 2–4
(E) 3–4
24. 1. consequence
2. potential
3. influence
4. ability
(A) 4–3 (B) 2–4
(C) 2–3 (D) 1–3
(E) 4–1
25. 1. rebuke 2. oppose
3. praise 4. distrust
(A) 1–2 (B) 2–3
(C) 1–3 (D) 3–4
(E) 2–4
Directions—(Q. 26–35) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Delinking of jobs from degrees is one of the …(26)… features of our education …(27)…. There has been a …(28)… fall in …(29)… in the acade-mic field in recent years. There is a …(30)… of degree holders in the country, as a result, university degrees have …(31)… their value and charm while the number of students in colleges and universities of the country has been …(32)… rising. Consequently thousands of graduates and post graduates come out of these institutions and stand in queues waiting to get some …(33)… jobs …(34)… in the country. Moreover, these degree holders do not have any technical or vocational knowledge needed for a particular job. As a result, the number of educated unemployed has been rising …(35)…. It has created a very serious problem.
26. (A) minor
(B) trivial
(C) unachievable
(D) irrelevant
(E) salient
27. (A) process
(B) policy
(C) development
(D) guideline
(E) procedures
28. (A) expected (B) sheer
(C) rough (D) steep
(E) gentle
29. (A) assessment
(B) evaluation
(C) competence
(D) fees
(E) value
30. (A) flood (B) class
(C) party (D) mob
(E) rabble
31. (A) mislaid (B) lost
(C) increase (D) found
(E) establish
32. (A) slowly (B) hastily
(C) deeply (D) waiting
(E) out
33. (A) suitable (B) remain
(C) study (D) live
(E) place
34. (A) frequency
(B) occurrence
(C) event
(D) chance
(E) blocking
35. (A) fever (B) outshine
(C) lean (D) dwarfed
(E) horribly
Answers With Explanations
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (E) 5. (D)
6. (E)07. (D) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (A)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (E) 15. (E)
16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (E) 19. (D) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (C)
26. (E) 27. (B) 28. (D)29. (C)30. (A)
31. (B) 32. (B)33. (A)34. (D) 35. (E)

ANALYTICAL REASONING FOR SBI PO 2010

2010-03-21T00:18:00.001-07:00

ANALYTICAL REASONING FOR SBI PO 2010

1. six members of a familyare travelling these are a,b,c,d,e, and f. b is the son of c but c is not mothers of b. a and c are a married couple, e is the brother of c. d is the daughter of a. f is the brother of b.
who is the wife of e:
(a) a
(b)f
(c)b
(d) cant be determined
2.six members of a familyare travelling these are a,b,c,d,e, and f. b is the son of c but c is not mothers of b. a and c are a married couple, e is the brother of c. d is the daughter of a. f is the brother of b.
which of following is pair of female
(a)ae
(b)bd
(c)df
(d)ad
3. six members of a familyare travelling these are a,b,c,d,e, and f. b is the son of c but c is not mothers of b. a and c are a married couple, e is the brother of c. d is the daughter of a. f is the brother of b.
how is e related to d:
(a) father
(b)brother
(c)uncle
(d)none of these
4.there is a group of five teachers a,b,c,d and e
- b and c teaches maths and geography
- a and c teach maths and history
- b and d teach political science and geofraphy
- d and e tech political science and biology
- e teaches biology, history, and political science
who teaches political science, geography and biology
(a)e
(b)d
(c)c
(d)b
5. there os a group of five teachers a,b,c,d and e
- b and c teaches maths and geography
- a and c teach maths and history
- b and d teach political science and geofraphy
- d and e tech political science and biology
- e teaches biology, history, and political science
who teaches in mathematics, political science and geography:
(a) a
(b)b
(c)d
(d)e
6. there os a group of five teachers a,b,c,d and e
- b and c teaches maths and geography
- a and c teach maths and history
- b and d teach political science and geofraphy
- d and e tech political science and biology
- e teaches biology, history, and political science
who teaches maths, geography and history
(a) c
(b)e
(c)a
(d)b
7. there os a group of five teachers a,b,c,d and e
- b and c teaches maths and geography
- a and c teach maths and history
- b and d teach political science and geofraphy
- d and e tech political science and biology
- e teaches biology, history, and political science
who teaches maths, geography and history
(a) e
(b)a
(c)d
(d)c
8.there os a group of five teachers a,b,c,d and e
- b and c teaches maths and geography
- a and c teach maths and history
- b and d teach political science and geofraphy
- d and e tech political science and biology
- e teaches biology, history, and political science
who teaches political science, history and biology
(a)a
(b)b
(c)c
(d)e
9.1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
how is ravi related to raju
(a)brother
(b)uncle
(c)cousin
(d)maternal uncle
10.1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
how ravi related to ashok
(a)maternal uncle
(b)cousin
(c)brother in law
(d)father in law
11.1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
how is ram related to suresh:
(a)brother
(b)cousin
(c)uncle
(d)brother in law
12. 1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
what is the surname of sanjay:
(a) chawla
(b) chopra
(c) khanna
(d) suresh
13. 1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
how is ram related to rita:
(a) brother
(b) uncle
(c) maternal uncle
(d) cousin
14. 1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
renu is sanjay's ----------
(a) sister
(b)sister in law
(c)aunty
(d)cousin
15. 1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
raju's sur name is:
(a) chawla
(b)khanna
(c)chopra
(d)none of these
16. 1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
sumit and suresh are related as:
(a) brother in law
(b)cousin
(c)brother
(d)uncle
17. 1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
how sonu related to ravi.
(a) brother
(b)brother in law
(c)nephew
(d)father
18.1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
how garima is related to mr. & mrs. khanna:
(a)daughter
(b)neice
(c)sister in law
(d)daughter in law
19. 1.gita, ravi and suresh are children of. mr. and mrs. khanna
2. renu,raja and sumit are children of mr. and mrs. chopra
3. sumit and gita are married and ashok and sanjay their children
4. garima and ram are children of mr. and mrs. chawla/
5 garima is married to suresh and has three children rata,sonu,raju
how ashok and sanjay are lated to mr. mrs. copra:
(a)sons
(b)nephews
(c)grand son
(d)none of these
20. in the office amongst staff a,b,c,d ,e of g. h there is only computer. a programe has to be made and can be made by only one person at a time. the office has 3 shifts, the morning shift from 6 am-12 am has 3 staff, afternoon shift from 12am. to 6 pm. has 3 staff, evening shift from 6 pm to 12 pm has 2 staff one of the person did not used a printer:
1 b is the last person who use the computer
2 h use the computer after a and came iwth a
3 d used the computer after h and come with h but before e
4 c used the computer before b but arrived after e
5 a use the computer before f and arrived before g
if g used a computer justbefore c who use 4:
(a) a
(b)b
(c)e
(d)d
21. in the office amongst staff a,b,c,d ,e of g. h there is only computer. a programe has to be made and can be made by only one person at a time. the office has 3 shifts, the morning shift from 6 am-12 am has 3 staff, afternoon shift from 12am. to 6 pm. has 3 staff, evening shift from 6 pm to 12 pm has 2 staff one of the person did not used a printer:
1 b is the last person who use the computer
2 h use the computer after a and came iwth a
3 d used the computer after h and come with h but before e
4 c used the computer before b but arrived after e
5 a use the computer before f and arrived before g
who arethe person in the night shift.
(a)f g
(b)f e
(c)b e
(d)b c
22. in the office amongst staff a,b,c,d ,e of g. h there is only computer. a programe has to be made and can be made by only one person at a time. the office has 3 shifts, the morning shift from 6 am-12 am has 3 staff, afternoon shift from 12am. to 6 pm. has 3 staff, evening shift from 6 pm to 12 pm has 2 staff one of the person did not used a printer:
1 b is the last person who use the computer
2 h use the computer after a and came iwth a
3 d used the computer after h and come with h but before e
4 c used the computer before b but arrived after e
5 a use the computer before f and arrived before g
who use the 2nd computer
(a) a
(b)h
(c)d
(d)e
23. in the office amongst staff a,b,c,d ,e of g. h there is only computer. a programe has to be made and can be made by only one person at a time. the office has 3 shifts, the morning shift from 6 am-12 am has 3 staff, afternoon shift from 12am. to 6 pm. has 3 staff, evening shift from 6 pm to 12 pm has 2 staff one of the person did not used a printer:
1 b is the last person who use the computer
2 h use the computer after a and came iwth a
3 d used the computer after h and come with h but before e
4 c used the computer before b but arrived after e
5 a use the computer before f and arrived before g
who are the person in the morning shift
(a) hec
(b)ahd
(c)efg
(d)dec
24. in the office amongst staff a,b,c,d ,e of g. h there is only computer. a programe has to be made and can be made by only one person at a time. the office has 3 shifts, the morning shift from 6 am-12 am has 3 staff, afternoon shift from 12am. to 6 pm. has 3 staff, evening shift from 6 pm to 12 pm has 2 staff one of the person did not used a printer:
1 b is the last person who use the computer
2 h use the computer after a and came iwth a
3 d used the computer after h and come with h but before e
4 c used the computer before b but arrived after e
5 a use the computer before f and arrived before g
who takes first computer
(a) a
(b)h
(c)d
(d)e
25. seven persons p,q,r,s,t,u,v and w are to be assigned seven adjacent chambers on the same floor in a apartment according to following conditions:
1 u is assigned as far away from r as t is
2 p and r prefer to have adjacent chanmbers
3 v will have to be assigned chamber no. 5
4 q;s work requirs him to speak on phone frequently through out the day.
5 p, s and t all smoke. v is allergic to toacco smoke and must have non smoker in the chamber ajjacent own.
6 unless otherwise specified all employeed maintain silence in their chambers.
the best location of s in on the floor is:
(a)2
(b)3
(c)4
(d)7
Answers:
1 d 2 d 3 c 4 b 5 b 6 c
7 d 8 d 9 b 10 a 11 d 12 b
13 c 14 c 15 b 16 a 17 c 18 d
19 c 20 c 21 d 22 b 23 b 24 a 25 a

DISCOVERY / INVENTION IN MEDICAL SCIENCE

2010-03-16T20:30:00.000-07:00

DISCOVERY / INVENTION IN MEDICAL SCIENCE

SNo

Discovery / Invention

Year

Discoverer / Inventor

Country

1

Adrenaline

1894

Schafer and Oliver

Britain

2

Anesthesia, Local

1885

Koller

Austria

3

Anesthesia, Spinal

1898

Bier

Germany

4

Anti-toxins (Science of Immunity)

1890

Behring and Kitasato

Germany, Japan

5

Aspirin

1889

Dreser

Germany

6

Ayurveda

2000-1000 BC

India

7

Bacteria

1683

Leeuwenhock

Netherlands

8

Bacteriology

1872

Ferdinand Cohn

Germany

9

Biochemistry

1648

Jan Baptista Van Helmont

Belgium

10

Blood Plasma storage (Blood bank)

1940

Drew

U.S.A

11

Blood Transfusion

1625

Jean-Baptiste Denys

France

12

Cardiac Pacemaker

1932

A.S Hyman

U.S.A

13

CAT Scanner

1968

Godfrey Hounsfield

Britain

14

Chemotherapy

1493-1541

Paracelsus

Switzerland

15

Chloroform as anaesthetic

1847

James Simpson

Britain

16

Chloromycetin

1947

Burkholder

U.S.A

17

Cholera T.B germs

1877

Robert Koch

Germany

18

Circulation of blood

1628

William Harvey

Britain

19

Cryo-Surgery

1953

Henry Swan

U.S.A

20

Diphtheria germs

1883-84

Klebs and Loffler

Germany

21

Electro-Cardiograph

1903

Willem Einthoven

Netherlands

22

Electro-encephalogram

1929

Hand Berger

Germany

23

Embryology

1792-1896

Kari Ernest Van Baer

Estonia

24

Endocrinology

1902

Bayliss and Starling

Britain

25

First Test Tube Baby

1978

Steptoe and Edwards

Britain

26

Gene Therapy on humans

1980

Martin Clive

U.S.A

27

Genes associated with cancer

1982

Robert Weinberg and others

U.S.A

28

Heart Transplant Surgery

1967

Christian Barnard

S. Africa

29

Histology

1771-1802

Marie Bichat

France

30

Hypodermic syringe

1853

Alexander wood

Britain

31

Kidney Machine

1944

Kolf

Netherlands

32

Leprosy Bacillus

1873

Hansen

Norway

33

LSD (Lysergic acid diethylamide)

1943

Hoffman

Switzerland

34

Malaria Germs

1880

Laveran

France

35

Morphine

1805

Friderich Sertumer

Germany

36

Neurology

1758-1828

Franz Joseph Gall

Germany

37

Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging

1971

Raymond Damadian

U.S.A

38

Open Heart Surgery

1953

Walton Lillehel

U.S.A

39

Oral Contraceptive Pills

1955

Gregory Pincus, Rock

U.S.A

40

Penicillin

1928

Alexander Fleming

Britain

41

Physiology

1757-66

Albrecht Von Haller

Switzerland

42

Positron emission Tomography

1978

Louis Sokoloff

U.S.A

43

Rabies Vaccine

1860

Louis Pasteur

France

44

Recombinant-DNA technology

1972-73

Paul Berg, H.W. Boyer,S Cohen

U.S.A

45

Reserpine

1949

Jal Vakil

India

46

Rh-factor

1940

Karl Landsteiner

U.S.A

47

Serology

1884-1915

Paul Ehrlich

Germany

48

Sex hormones

1910

Eugen Steinach

Australia

49

Small Pox eradicated

1980

W.H.O Declaration

UN

50

Stethoscope

1819

Rene Laennec

France

51

Streptomycin

1944

Selman Waksmann

U.S.A

52

Synthetic Antigens

1917

Landsteiner

U.S.A

53

Terramycin

1950

Finlay and Others

U.S.A

54

Thyroxin

1919

Edward Calvin-Kendall

U.S.A

55

Typhus Vaccine

1909

J. Nicolle

France

56

Vaccination

1796

Edward Jenner

Britain

57

Vaccine, Measles

1963

Enders

U.S.A

58

Vaccine, Meningitis

1987

Gardon, et al. Connaught Lab

U.S.A

59

Vaccine, Polio

1954

Jonas Salk

U.S.A

60

Vaccine, Polio-orai

1960

Albert Sabin

U.S.A

61

Vaccine, Rabies

1885

Louis Pasteur

France

62

Vaccine, Smallpox

1776

Jenner

Britain

63

Virology

1892

Ivanovski and Bajernick

USSR, Netherlands

64

Vitamin A

1913

Mc Collum and M. Davis

U.S.A

65

Vitamin B1

1936

Minot and Murphy

U.S.A

66

Vitamin C

1919

Froelich Holst

Norway

67

Vitamin D

1925

Mc Collum

U.S.A

68

Vitamin K

1938

Doisy Dam

U.S.A

69

Western Scientific Therapy

460-370 BC

Hippocrates

Greece

70

Yoga

200-100 BC

Patanjali

India

BRANCHES OF SCIENCE

2010-03-16T20:27:00.000-07:00

BRANCHES OF SCIENCE

Branch

Concerning Field

Aeronautics

Science of flight of airplanes

Astronomy

Study of heavenly bodies

Agronomy

Science dealing with crop plants

angiology

Deals with the study of blood vascular system

Anthology

Study of flowers

Anthropology

Study of apes and man

Apiculture

Honey industry (Bee Keeping)

Araneology

Study of spiders

Batracology

Study of frogs

Biochemistry

Deals with the study of chemical reactions in relation to life activities

Biotechnology

Deals with the use of micro-organism in commercial processes for producing fine chemicals such as drugs, vaccines, hormones, etc, on a large scale

Cardiology

Study of heart

Craniology

Study of skulls

Cryptography

Study of secret writing

Cryogenics

Study concerning with the application and uses of very low temperature

Cytology

Study of cells

Dermatology

Study of skin

Ecology

The study of relationship between organisms and environment

Entomology

Study of insects

Etiology

Study of cause of disease

Eugenics

Study of improvement of human race by applying laws of heredity. It is related with future generations

Evolution

Deals with the study of origin of new from old

Exbiology

Deals with life or possibilities of life beyond the earth

Floriculture

Study of flower yielding plants

Geology

Study of condition and structure of the earth

Genetics

Study of heredity and variations

Gerontology

Study of growing old

Gynaecology

Study of female reproductive organ

Horticulture

Study of garden cultivation

Haematology

Study of blood

Hepatology

Study of liver

. Iconography

Teaching by pictures and models

Immunology

Science which deals with the study of resistance of organisms against infection

Jurisprudence

Science of law

Kalology

Study of human beauty

Lexicography

Compiling of dictionary

Mycology

Study of fungi

Myology

Study of muscles

Nephrology

Study of kidneys

Neurology

Study of nervous system

Numismatics

Study of coins and medals

Obstetrics

Branch of medicine dealing with pregnancy

Oneirology

Study of dreams

Ophthalmology

Study of eyes

Ornithology

Study of birds

Osteology

Study of bones

Palaeontology

Study of fossils

Philately

Stamp collecting

Philology

Study of language

Phonetics

Concerning the sound of a spoken language

Physiography

Natural phenomenon

Pedology

Study of soils

Pathology

Study of disease causing organisms

Phycology

Study of algae

Physiology

Science dealing with the study of functions of various parts of organisms

Pisciculture

Study of fish

Pomology

Study of fruits

Seismology

Study of earthquakes

Sericulture

Silk industry (culture of silk moth and pupa)

Serpentology

Study of snakes

Telepathy

Communication between two minds at a distance with the help of emotions thoughts and feelings

Taxonomy

Study of classification of organisms

Virology

Study of virus

FAMOUS INDIAN SCIENTISTS

2010-03-16T05:49:00.000-07:00

FAMOUS INDIAN SCIENTISTS
Aryabhatta: He lived between 476 and 520 A.D. He was a great mathematician and an astronomer. His contributions include about the movement of earth around the Sun, determination of various physical parameters of various celestial bodies, such as diameter of Earth and Moon. He laid foundations of algebra and pointed out the importance of zero. The first Indian satellite was named after him.

Bhagavantam: His contribution to radio astronomy and cosmic rays in noteworthy. An associate of Sir C.V.Raman, Dr.S.Bhagavantam was scientific adviser in the Ministry of Defence and Director General of Defence Research Development Organisation.

Bhaskaracharya: Born in 1114 A.D., bhaskaracharya was a great Hindu mathematician and Astronomer. His work 'Sidhanta Siromain' consists of two parts of mathematics and two parts of astronomy. He had a foresight on the modern theory of conventions.

S.S. Bhatnagar: A great Indian Scientist who lived between 1895 and 1955. He was the first Director General of Council of Scientific and Industrial Research. Under his directorship, many research laboratories were established throughout India.

J.C.Bose: He was an eminent Physicist and Botanist. He founded Bose Research Institute, Calcutta. He invented Crescograph and lived between 1858 and 1937.

S.N. Bose: He became well-known when he expounded the Bose Einstein theory which deals with the detection of a group of nuclear particles - named after him 'Boson'. His contribution to Planck's Law is laudable. He died in 1974.

Dr. S.Chandrasekhar: An Indian-born American, who won Nobel Prize for Physics in 1983. He is an Astrophysicist. His theory of Stellar Evolution - the birth and death of stars is 35 years old. His first discovery was laughed at. After three decades, it was recognised and today he is a Nobel Laureate. According to his theory, the old stars just collapse and disappear in the light of denser stars of low light popularly called Chandrasekhar Limit.

Charaka: He lived between 80 and 180 A.D. He was a court physician of King Kanishka. His writings on Hindu Medicine are invaluable

Dhanvantri: He was a great physician during the period of Chandragupta Vikramaditya. His period was between 375 and 413 A.D.

Hargobind Khorana: He created an artificial gene and deciphered genetic code. He was awarded Nobel Prize for Medicine in 1968.

Homi J.Bhaba: He largely contributed to the development of Atomic Physics and he was primarily responsible for setting up of Nuclear reactors in India. He published important papers on Quantum Theory, Cosmic Rays, Structure of atom, etc. He was the first Chairman of Atomic Energy Commission. He died in a plane crash in 1966 over Alps.

Joshi: Prof. S.S.Joshi's works on physical and chemical reaction under electrical discharge on active nitrogen, colloids, hydrogen peroxide are noteworthy

Nagarjuna: A great Buddhist Philosopher and Chemist. He mentioned about crecibles, sublimation, colouring process etc. His works are still available in China and Tibet. His theory on extraction of copper and metallic oxides are mention-worthy.

Nag Chowdhury B.D: An eminent Indian Nuclear Physicist known all over the world.

Narlikar: J.V.Narlikar was the co-author of Hoyle-Narlikar theory of continuous creation which supplies missing links in Einstein's theory of Relativity. Hoyle and Narlikar have shown that the gravitation is always attractive and there is no gravitational repulsions.

Raja Ramanna: A great nuclear scientist, who was instrumental to stage India's first Nuclear explosion at Pokharan range in 1974.

Sir C.V. Raman: First Indian Scientist to receive Nobel prize for physics in 1929 for his invention 'Raman Effect'. His study of crystal structure is of unique importance. He founded Raman Research Institute at Bangalore.

Sir C.P.Roy: Author of 'Hindu Chemistry'. He founded Indian Chemical Society and Bengal Chemical and Pharmaceuticals Ltd. He has done good work on nitrous acid and its salts. He lived between 1861- 1944 AD.

Prof. V.Ramachandra Rao: Direction of Indian Scientific Satellite Project (ISSP) at Peenya near Bangalore

Saha Dr.Maghnad: Late Palit Prof.of Physics, University College of Scientific and Technology, Calcutta University well-known for his researches in nuclear physics, cosmic rays, spectrum analysis and other branches of theoretical physics. He lived from 1893 to 1956.

Srinivas Ramanujam: A mathematical wizard, contributed much to number theory, theory of partitions and theory of continuous fractions. He lived between 1887 to 1920 AD. His birth centenary was celebrated in 1987.

Satish Dhavan: He was chairman of Indian Space Research Organisation. He was instrumental to take India into space age by launching Aryabhatta in 1975.

Susruta: A fourth century Hindu Surgeon and Physician. He had written an important book on medicine and on medical properties of garlic.

Varahamihira: An Indian astronomer and astrologer of 6th Century A.D. He was a mathematician and philosopher. He was one of the nine gems of Vikramaditya.

ANTONYMS OF THE WORD

2010-03-16T05:43:00.000-07:00

ANTONYMS OF THE WORD :
BANK PO, BANK CLERK , SSC , RAILWAY
TC, ASM , GOODS GUARD , MBA

Cold Hot Live Die

Dry wet Long Short

Love Hate Like Dislike

Question Answer Gay Grave

Asleep Awake Rejoice Mourn

Front Back Pleasant Disagreeable

Joy Sorrow Success Failure

Begin Cease Harmony Discord

Find Lose Blessing Curse

Friend Enemy Generous Mean

Dead Alive Velour Cowardice

Busy Idle Bravery Cowardice

Sweet Sour Advance Retreat

Bright dull Arrive Depart

True FALSE Before After

Start Finish Appear Vanish

Ugly beautiful Everywhere Nowhere

Near far Earth Sea

Kind cruel Hill Valley

Empty full Mountain Plain

Ever never Right Left

Bless curse Public Private

Adult child Acute Obtuse

North south Lazy Industrious

Absent present Master Servant

Poor rich Arrive Depart

Right wrong Remember Forget

Win lose Appoint Dismiss

Peace war Knowledge Ignorance

Rough smooth Placid ruddy

Coarse fine Raw cooked

Top bottom Help hinder

Buy sell Accept refuse

Life death Robust feeble

Proud humble Good bad

Easy difficult Big small

Cheap dear Clever stupid

Inside outside Here there

Give take first last

Hit miss early late

Wide narrow fat thin

Loud soft join separate

Clean dirty light dark

Weep laugh Day night

Collect disperse Many few

Youth age All none

Modern ancient often seldom

Former latter fresh stale

Least greatest straight crooked

Slender stout Weak strong

East west Deep shallow

High low Open close

Upper lower Black white

Higher lower praise blame

Better worse This that

Entrance exit These those

Active passive Morning evening

Noise silence Summer winter

Quiet noisy Young old

Inner outer Giant dwarf

Lend borrow Wild tam

Go come Gain loss

Hard soft Happy sad

Old new Daily nightly

Junior senior Health sickness

Lead follow employ dismiss

Land water liberty slavery

Bow stern think guess

Stationary moving work rest

Dynamic static worker drone

centrifugal centripetal familiar strange

oriental occidental freedom captivity

miser spendthrift barren fruitful

sober intoxicated sacred profane

spacious limited virtue vice

future past wisdom folly

abundance scarcity polite rude

common rare proper common

simply complex Attack Defend

ally enemy bashful bold

teach learn inhale exhale

natural artificial expand contract

polite saucy victor vanquished

summit base antecedent consequent

apex base eager reluctant

cloudy clear order chaos

dawn duck certain doubt

ascend descend venial unpardonable

vacant occupied rigid flexible

hope despair novice veteran

interior exterior industry sloth

permanent temporary accelerate retard

obey command benevolent malevolent

negative positive compulsory voluntary

conceal reveal analysis synthesis

hide show surplus deficit

singular plural prosperous indigent

foreign native consent dissent

smile frown include exclude

multiply divide transverse longitudinal

wax wane attract distract

prosperity adversity amateur professional

victory defeat confine release

superior inferior orthodox heterodox

level steep pure adulterated

liquid solid lovely repulsive

pardon punish graceful hideous

complainant defendant pugnacious peaceful

debtor creditor hostile friendly

rural urban gentile Jew

emigrant immigrant monotony variety

optimist pessimist survive succumb

sincere insincere prospective retrospective

numerous sparse premature overdue

transparent opaque caution recklessness

pedestrian passenger force compel

powerful feeble colleague antagonist

guilty innocent prudence indiscretion

heaven hell motionless agitated

heroic base accurate inaccurate

ancestor progeny Indigenous Exotic

assemble disperse Apprehend Release

condemn exonerate Gaiety Melancholy

slim stout Solitary Populous

minimum maximum Sparse Populated

arrival departure Predecessor Successor

reward punishment Confusion Orderliness

economy extravagance Pleasure Pain

increase decrease Convict Acquit

majority minority Engage Dismiss

Bank Probationary Officers Model Paper

2010-03-16T05:39:00.000-07:00

Bank Probationary Officers Model Paper

Reasoning Ability Test

Directions—(Q. 1–5) For each of the following questions there is some relationship between the two terms to the left of :: and the same relationship obtains between the two terms to its right. In each of these questions the fourth term is missing. This term is one of the alternatives among the five terms given below. Find out this term.

1. ABCD is related to BEGI in the same way as BCDE is related to ... ?

(A) ADFH

(B) CFHJ

(C) CDEF

(D) CEGI

Ans : (B)

2. ABEF is related to BCFG in the same way as GHKL is related to ... ?

(A) FGKJ

(B) HILM

(C) HIKJ

(D) HIML

Ans : (B)

3. BYCX is related to AZDW in the same way as DWEV is related to ... ?

(A) CEXV

(B) CXFU

(C) EVFU

(D) EWCX

Ans : (B)

4. 'CIRCLE' is related to 'RICELC' in the same way as 'SQUARE' is related to—

(A) UQSERA

(B) QUSERA

(C) UQSAER

(D) QSUERA

Ans : (A)

5. 'JKLM' is related to 'XYZA' in the same way as 'NOPQ' is related to—

(A) RSTU

(B) YZAB

(C) DEFG

(D) BCDE

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 6–15) Each of the following questions has four alternative responses. Select the correct response.

6. Which one of the following is same as liver, heart, kidney?

(A) Nose

(B) Blood

(C) Urine

(D) Lung

Ans : (D)

7. Which one of the following is same as uncle, aunt, brother?

(A) Child

(B) Boy

(C) Adult

(D) Nephew

Ans : (D)

8. Which one of the following is same as Jute, Cotton, Wool ?

(A) Nylon

(B) Rayon

(C) Silk

(D) Terylene

Ans : (C)

9. Which one of the following is same as lead, convince, allure?

(A) Direct

(B) Order

(C) Initiate

(D) Fascinate

Ans : (D)

10. Which one of the following is same as flood, fire, cyclone?

(A) Accident

(B) Rain

(C) Earthquake

(D) Damage

Ans : (C)

11. Which one of the following is same as carpenter, plumber, electrician ?

(A) Doctor

(B) Blacksmith

(C) Teacher

(D) Lawyer

Ans : (B)

12. Which one of the following is same as cork, plug, dam ?

(A) Obstruction

(B) Drain

(C) Pipe

(D) Tap

Ans : (A)

13. Which one of the following is same as red, yellow, blue?

(A) Sky

(B) Dark

(C) Green

(D) Bright

Ans : (C)

14. Which one of the following is same as desire, wish, want ?

(A) Pleasant

(B) Feel

(C) Anxiety

(D) Satisfy

Ans : (C)

15. Which one of the following is same as ohm, volt, amp. ?

(A) Light

(B) Metre

(C) Hour

(D) Watt

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) In each of the sentences given below, there are two questions marks given one in the beginning and the other at the end. To fill up the question marks, there are few alternatives. Choose the correct alternative.

16. ( ? ) is related to Masculine in the same way Woman is related to ?

(A) Disguise, Modest

(B) Capacity, Woman

(C) Man, Feminine

(D) Brave, Mrs.

Ans : (C)

17. ( ? ) is to Sky as Fish is to ?

(A) Blue, Swim

(B) Bird, Water

(C) Open, Hook

(D) Tree, Colour

Ans : (B)

18. ( ? ) is to Uncle as Mother is to ?

(A) Brother, Brought-up

(B) Father, Aunt

(C) Cousin, Beautiful

(D) Aunt, Father

Ans : (D)

19. ( ? ) is to Sri Lanka as Delhi is to ?

(A) Columbo, India

(B) Kathmandu, Capital

(C) India, Paris

(D) Island, Harbour

Ans : (D)

20. ( ? ) is to Ivory as Deer is to ?

(A) White, Hunt

(B) Elephant, Horn

(C) Huge, Rare

(D) Costly, Scarce

Ans : (B)

Directions—From questions 21 to 25 fill the correct pair in place of question marks.

21. Table is to ( ? ) as Cup is to ?

(A) Furniture, Tea

(B) Student, Horse

(C) Wood, Hot

(D) Chair, Plate

Ans : (D)

22. Sugar is to ( ? ) as Mava is to ?

(A) Sweet, Sour

(B) Energy, Machine

(C) Sugarcane, Milk

(D) White, Sweet

Ans : (C)

23. ( ? ) is to Sun as Rain is to ?

(A) Moon, Rainbow

(B) Light, Cloud

(C) Sky, Wet

(D) Day, Night

Ans : (B)

24. ( ? ) is to Brain as Mouth is to ?

(A) Skull, Tongue

(B) Hat, Lips

(C) Hair, Voice

(D) Turban, Saliva

Ans : (A)

25. ( ? ) is to Touch as Ear is to ?

(A) Hand, Know

(B) Experience, Feeling

(C) Skin, Hear

(D) Hair, Dirt

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In Column I are listed certain groups of individuals while in Column II are listed some of the characteristics against each group of individuals which are common to each member of that group.

Column I Column II

FHIJ TW

IJK PT

IJLM SUW

GHIKM RV

GHI QRV

FGI PR

HIJ QTW

IJL QSUW

GIJ PQS

26. Which individual has all the above characteristics?

(A) J

(B) I

(C) H

(D) M

Ans : (B)

27. Which characteristics are found either in J or in K or in both but in M?

(A) P, Q, T

(B) P, Q, R, S

(C) Q, R, S, T

(D) U, V, T

Ans : (A)

28. Which Characteristics is common to G and H but not in M?

(A) S

(B) B

(C) Q

(D) R

Ans : (C)

29. Which Characteristics are common to H and J but not in K?

(A) P, Q

(B) Q, W

(C) Q, R

(D) R, W

Ans : (B)

30. Which Characteristics is not found either in F or in L or in both?

(A) Q

(B) U

(C) S

(D) V

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each of the following question, three words are given with four alternatives. One of the four alternatives is same as the three words given in beginning. Then find out the correct alternative answer.

31. Which one is the same as Mumbai, Kolkata, Cochin ?

(A) Delhi

(B) Kanpur

(C) Chennai

(D) Sholapur

Ans : (C)

32. Which one is the same as Coal, Ebony and Soot?

(A) Blush

(B) Raven

(C) Ash

(D) Rust

Ans : (C)

33. Which one is the same as Basket, Pail and Pan ?

(A) Knife

(B) Spoon

(C) Fork

(D) Bowl

Ans : (D)

34. Which one is the same as Emancipate, Free and Release?

(A) Ignore

(B) Pardon

(C) Liberate

(D) Quit

Ans : (C)

35. Which one is the same as Daisy, Pansy and Rose?

(A) Bed

(B) Violet

(C) Plant

(D) Red

Ans : (C)

Directions—Find out the correct answer in each of the questions from 36 to 40.

36. Which one is the same as Arid, Parched and Droughty ?

(A) Draft

(B) Cow

(C) Earth

(D) Dry

Ans : (D)

37. Which one is the same as Grandfather, Father and Brother?

(A) Baby

(B) Father-in-law

(C) Son

(D) Son-in-law

Ans : (C)

38. Which one is the same as Yellow, Orange and Green?

(A) Tree

(B) Purple

(C) Grass

(D) Leaf

Ans : (B)

39. Which one is the same as Lungs, Liver and Kidneys?

(A) Heart

(B) Intestines

(C) Testis

(D) Neck

Ans : (A)

40. Which one is the same as Lock, Shut and Fasten?

(A) Window

(B) Door

(C) Block

(D) Iron

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 41–45) In each of the following questions, three words are given. Under them four alternatives are provided, one of which expresses most effectively the general characteristic if these three words. That alternative is your answer.

41. Aeroplane, Train, Truck

(A) Speed

(B) Rooms

(C) Wheels

(D) Transport

Ans : (D)

42. Wolf, Leopard, Deer

(A) Meat eater

(B) Jungles

(C) Mammals

(D) Cruel

Ans : (C)

43. Sword, Gun, Pistol

(A) Arms

(B) Constable

(C) Bullet

(D) War

Ans : (A)

44. Fraud, Jealously, Hatred

(A) Destruction

(B) Envy

(C) Human Characteristics

(D) Quality

Ans : (C)

45. Novel, Epic, Drama

(A) Subject

(B) Literature

(C) Poetry

(D) Knowledge

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) In each of the following questions, three words are given. They are followed by four words, one of which stands for the class to which these three words belong. Identify that word.

46. Wheat, Barley, Rice

(A) Food

(B) Gram

(C) Cereal

(D) Agriculture

Ans : (C)

47. Coal, Iron, Mica

(A) Rock

(B) Minerals

(C) Gold

(D) Earth

Ans : (B)

48. Honesty, Credibility, Reliability

(A) Quality

(B) Dependability

(C) Charter

(D) Nicety

Ans : (A)

49. Cap, Coat, Trousers

(A) Smart

(B) Shirt

(C) Dress

(D) Tailor

Ans : (C)

50. Stool, Table, Chair

(A) Bench

(B) Furniture

(C) Carpet

(D) Office

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 51–60) For each of the following questions, there are two words and five alternative answers. In each of the alternative answers there are two words. Then find out the alternative whose two words have the same relation as in the two words given in question.

51. Resignation : Office ::

(A) Competition : Game

(B) Illness : Hospital

(C) Abdication : Throne

(D) Moisture : Rain

(E) Appointment : Interview

Ans : (C)

52. Bunch : Key ::

(A) Hound : Pack

(B) Team : Competition

(C) Beehive : Bee

(D) Examination : Subject

(E) Bouquet : Flower

Ans : (E)

53. Profit : Loss ::

(A) Success : Failure

(B) Rupee : Paisa

(C) Whole : Part

(D) Multiplication : Addition

(E) Adult : Child

Ans : (A)

54. Sapling : Tree ::

(A) Horse : Mare

(B) Student: Teacher

(C) Bud : Flower

(D) Tree : Furniture

(E) River : Brook

Ans : (C)

55. Supervisor : Worker ::

(A) Junior : Senior

(B) Superior : Inferior

(C) Elder : Younger

(D) Debtor : Creditor

(E) Officer : Clerk

Ans : (E)

56. Malaria : Mosquito ::

(A) Poison : Death

(B) Rat : Plague

(C) Epidemic : Bacteria

(D) Cholera : Water

(E) Medicine : Disease

Ans : (D)

57. Paisa : Rupee ::

(A) Kilogram : Quintal

(B) Metre : Centimetre

(C) Coin : Money

(D) Weight : Ton

(E) Rupee : Wealth

Ans : (A)

58. Poet : Verse ::

(A) Prose : Novelist

(B) Author : Book

(C) Novel : Prose

(D) Publication : Editor

(E) Summary : Paraphrase

Ans : (B)

59. Water : Thirst ::

(A) Food : Hunger

(B) Sun : Energy

(C) Appetite : Meal

(D) Ice-cream : Cold

(E) Poison : Death

Ans : (A)

60. Pulp : Paper ::

(A) Wood : Table

(B) Cloth : Shirt

(C) Yarn : Fabric

(D) Iron : Steel

(E) Wood : Sawdust

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 61–70) For each of the following questions, there are two words and eight alternative answers. Then find out two such alternatives the relation in which is the same as in the two words given in the beginning.

61. Trees and Forest

(A) Ocean (B) Page

(C) Books (D) Study

(E) Library (F) Ship

(G) Boys (H) Classes

Ans : (C, E)

62. Constable and Police

(A) Clerk (B) Hospital

(C) Medicine (D) Mother

(E) Girl (F) Doctor

(G) File (H) House

Ans : (B, F)

63. Brother-in-law and Sister

(A) I (B) Youth

(C) Female-companion (D) Wife

(E) My (F) Beautiful Woman

(G) Damsel (H) Sister-in-law

Ans : (B, G)

64. Cold and Hot

(A) January (B) Monday

(C) Year (D) June

(E) March (F) Thursday

(G) Month (H) August

Ans : (A, D)

65. High and Low

(A) Far (B) Rent

(C) Next (D) Near

(E) Distance (F) Fair

(G) Last (H) Clean

Ans : (A, D)

66. Unsuccess and Laziness

(A) Study (B) Success

(C) Day (D) School

(E) Labour (F) Lazy

(G) Game (H) Honesty

Ans : (E, B)

67. Car and Garage

(A) Horse (B) Grass

(C) Bird (D) Water

(E) Man (F) Stable

(G) Animal (H) Hive

Ans : (A, F)

68. Hand and Fingers

(A) Foot (B) Eyes

(C) Hat (D) Teeth

(E) Head (F) Stomach

(G) Nose (H) Hair

Ans : (E, H)

69. Oxygen and Man

(A) Petrol (B) Stool

(C) Carpenter (D) Sky

(E) Driver (F) Wood

(G) Water (H) Fish

Ans : (G, H)

70. Neat and Clean

(A) Dirty (B) Tidy

(C) Route (D) White

(E) Wise (F) Ravi

(G) Foul (H) Beauty

Ans : (A, G)

Directions—(Q.71–75) In each of the following two columns, the groups of three words are given. Compare two columns and find the pairs given below each question, which satisfy the same relationship between the two groups of that pair.

Column I

(A) Cereal, Wheat, Tomato

(B) Seeds, Apple, Fruit

(C) Mother, Sister, Female

(D) Teacher, Writer, Speaker

(E) Stool, Furniture, Table

Column II

(P) Apple, Banana, Fruit

(Q) Wheat, Barley, Cereals

(R) Doctor, Painter, Father

(S) Cow, Mammal, Animal

(I) Soldier, Army, Civilian

71. (A) BP

(B) AQ

(C) CR

(D) EP

Ans : (D)

72. (A) BR

(B) AT

(C) CS

(D) DP

Ans : (C)

73. (A) DR

(B) BR

(C) ET

(D) CS

Ans : (A)

74. (A) BS

(B) AT

(C) AQ

(D) DQ

Ans : (B)

75. (A) CR

(B) EQ

(C) BQ

(D) DS

Ans : (B)

Labels: Bank Probationary Officers Model Paper : Reasoning Ability Test, Mental Ability Test For Forthcomming Exam Bank PO, REASONING ABILITY FOR BANK PROBATIONARY OFFICERS 0 comments Links to this post

Mental Ability Test For Forthcomming Exam Bank PO, Bank Clerk, MBA, CAT

Saturday, September 20, 2008 at 12:00 AM Posted by Free Exam Original Paper

Mental Ability Test For Forthcomming Exam

Bank PO, Bank Clerk, MBA, CAT, S.S.C Etc

Directions—(Q. 1-5) In the following each question there are two statements and two conclusions I and II there-after are given. Accept the given statements as true even if they are inconsistent with known facts and ignoring the universally known facts find out which conclusion follows logically from the given statements.
Give answer (A) if only the conclusion I follows.
Give answer (B) if only the conclusion II follows.
Give answer (C) if either the conclusion I or the II follows.
Give answer (D) if neither the conclusion I nor the II follows.
Give answer (E) if the conclusions I and II both follow.

1. Statements: All faxes are alligators.
Some alligators are jackals.
Conclusions:
I. Some faxes are jackals.
II. All faxes are jackals.
Ans : (D)

2. Statements: Some pen are fire-works.
All fire-works are toys.
Conclusions:
I. Some toys are men.
II. Some toys are fire-works.
Ans : (E)

3. Statements: All herons are parrots.
No parrot is swan.
Conclusions:
I. No heron is swan.
II. Some swans are herons.
Ans : (A)

4. Statements: Some bats are cats.
Some cats are dogs.
Conclusions:
I. Some bats are dogs.
II. Some dogs are bats.
Ans : (D)

5. Statements: All writers are novelists.
Some novelists are dramatists.
Conclusions:
I. Some writers are dramatists.
II. Some dramatists are novelists.
Ans : (D)

6. Introducing Priyanka, Saroj says that her mother is the only daughter of my mother. How is Saroj related to Priyanka ?
(A) Mother
(B) Sister
(C) Daughter
(D) Aunt
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. Pointing to a picture of a child Narendra says, "The brother of this child's mother, is the only son of my mother's father." How is Narendra related to the mother of the child?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Maternal grand mother
(D) Aunt
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

8. Pointing to a lady in the photograph Kaushal said, "She is the daughter of the daughter of the only son of my grand father." How is the lady related to Kaushal ?
(A) Sister
(B) Maternal aunt
(C) Niece
(D) Cousin
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

9. Pointing to Manju, Gaurav said, "She is the wife of the only son of my father's father." How is Manju related to Gaurav ?
(A) Mother
(B) Sister
(C) Aunt
(D) Sister-in-law
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

10. A lady pointing to a man in photograph says, "The father of his brother is the only son of my maternal grand father." How is the man related to that lady?
(A) Husband
(B) Son
(C) Father
(D) Maternal uncle
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

11. A lady pointing to a man in a photograph says, "The sister of the son of this man is my mother-in-law." How is the husband of the lady related to the man in the photograph?
(A) Maternal grand son
(B) Nephew
(C) Son
(D) Maternal grand father
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

12. Kamini says, "Rajeev's grand father is the only son of my father." How is Kamini related to Rajeev ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Niece
(D) Grand mother
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

13. Introducing a man, a woman says, "He is the only son of my mother's mother." How is the man related to the woman ?
(A) Uncle
(B) Father
(C) Maternal uncle
(D) Uncle
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

14. Pointing a woman, Mahendra says, "The only son of her mother is my father." How is Mahendra related to the woman ?
(A) Nephew
(B) Brother
(C) Son
(D) Grandson
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

15. Pointing to Kalpna, Arjun says, "She is the only daughter of my father-in-law." How is Kalpna related to Arjun ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Niece
(C) Wife
(D) Daughter-in-law
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

16. Pointing to a man Snehlata says, "He is the only son of my father's father." How is Snehlata related to the man ?
(A) Mother
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Niece
(D) Sister
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

17. Pointing to a lady in photograph, Madhurendra said, "Her mother is the only daughter of my mother's mother." How is Madhurendra related to the lady?
(A) Nephew
(B) Uncle
(C) Maternal uncle
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

18. If P x Q means— 'P is the brother of Q', P ÷ Q means 'P is the son of Q' and 'P – Q' means 'P is the sister of Q' , then which of the following relations will show that Q is the maternal uncle of P ?
(A) Q x R ÷ P
(B) Q ÷ R – P
(C) P x R – Q
(D) P ÷ R – Q
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

19. A lady pointing to a woman in a photograph says, "She is the only daughter of my father-in-law." How is the woman related to the lady?
(A) Mother
(B) Sister
(C) Friend
(D) Aunt
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

20. Pointing to a woman in a photograph a man says, "Her mother's mother is the mother of my father." How is the man related to the woman in a photograph?
(A) Uncle
(B) Maternal cousin
(C) Nephew
(D) Grand son
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

21. If x means –, – means x, + means ÷ and ÷ means + then—
13 – 12 ÷ 400 + 20 x 100 = ?
(A) 1/1760
(B) 76
(C) 176
(D) 186
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

22. If – means ÷, ÷ means –, + means x and x means +, then—
12 – 4 x 7 + 8 ÷ 5 = ?
(A) 51
(B) 45
(C) 34
(D) 64
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

23. If + means x, x means +, – means ÷ and ÷ means –, then—
16 x 2 ÷ 4 + 7 – 8 = ?
(A) 31
(B) 29/2
(C) 43/2
(D) 15
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. If + means ÷, ÷ means –, – means x and x means +, then—
64 + 8 ÷ 6 – 4 x 2 = ?
(A) 34
(B) 16
(C) –14
(D) 24
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

25. If + means –, – means x, x means ÷ and ÷ means +, then—
48 x 4 ÷ 7 + 8 – 2 = ?
(A) 3
(B) –5
(C) 35
(D) 16
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

RRB TICKET COLLECTOR SOLVED PAPER

2010-03-16T05:37:00.002-07:00

RRB TICKET COLLECTOR SOLVED PAPER

1. In which ritual book attached to the Rig Veda Andhras were first mentioned ?

(A) Brihihakta

(B) Aitreya Brahmana

(C) Gatha Sapthasati

(D) Silppadikaram

Ans (B)

2. Which of the following is capital a city of Manipur?

(A) Dispur

(B) Guwahati

(C) Imphal

(D) Itanagar

Ans (C)

3. Which of the following was the birth place of Gautam Buddha?

(A) Lumbini

(B) Saranath

(C) Gaya

(D) Prayaga

Ans (A)

4. Which of the following protects India from cold winds and foreign invasions in the north of India?

(A) River Ganga

(B) Vindhya Ranges

(C) Himalayas

(D) Sahyadri

Ans (C)

5. Africa occupies which part of the earth?

(A) 1/3rd

(B) 2/3rd

(C) 4/5th

(D) 1/5th

Ans (D)

6. What is the Insurance company founded by sir Dorab Tata in 1919?

(A) LIC

(B) UIIC

(C) NIAC

(D) OIC

Ans (C)

7. Who invented Telephone?

(A) Alexandar Graham Bell

(B) Thamas Edision

(C) Alexandar Flemming

(D) Marconi

Ans (A)

8. Where is "India Gate"?

(A) New Delhi

(B) Mumbai

(C) KolkAta

(D) Chandigarh

Ans (A)

9. Who was the wife of "Mahatma Gandhi"?

(A) Anjali Bai

(B) Putli Bai

(C) Kasthuri Bai

(D) Kanchana Bai

Ans (C)

10. Where is the "Mahamastaka Abhisheka" festival held?

(A) Hassan

(B) Shravanabelagola

(C) Bangalore

(D) Mysore

Ans (B)

11. The first woman to become Governor of a state in India was -

(A) Sarojini Naidu

(B) Fateema Biwi

(C) Vijayalaxmi Pandit

(D) Sucheta Kripalani

Ans (A)

12. Who among was the controversial painter, painted the nude paintings of "Hindu Goddess"

(A) Jakir Hussain

(B) M.F. Hussain

(C) Mohit Hussain

(D) N.F. Hussain

Ans (B)

13. Which among the following is the Indian News Papers Day?

(A) 29th January

(B) 2nd October

(C) 25th December

(D) 14th April

Ans (A)

14. Which was the old name of "New Delhi"?

(A) Hastinapur

(B) Ayodhya

(C) Daulatabad

(D) Indhraprastha

Ans (D)

15. On which river Hirakud project was built?

(A) Mahanadi

(B) Sutlej

(C) Tungabadra

(D) Kosi

Ans (A)

16. Doctors Day is observed on___

(A) June 1

(B) July 1

(C) Aug 1

(D) Sep 1

Ans (B)

17. Which of the following is the farthest planet to the Sun?

(A) Mars

(B) Jupiter

(C) Neptune

(D) Pluto

Ans (D)

18. Who wrote the book "Rama Charita Manas"

(A) Tulsi Das

(B) Bhakta Kabir

(C) Bhakta Ramdev

(D) Valmiki

Ans (A)

19. Who has written the novel "The inheritance of loss" which was awarded "Booker Award"?

(A) Saniya Mirza

(B) Kiran Desai

(C) Kiran Bedi

(D) Sakuntala Devi

Ans (B)

20. Who won the Wimbledon Open (Mens ) Title for 2008?

(A) Fernando Gonazlez

(B) Roger Federer

(C) Boris Becker

(D) Sharapova

Ans (B)

21. Who is present governor of RBI?

(A) Biman Jalal

(B) N. Chaturvedi

(C) Y.V.Reddy

(D) None of these

Ans (C)

22. Which of the following is the smallest populated continent?

(A) Australia

(B) Antarctica

(C) South America

(D) Asia

Ans (B)

23. How many years for celebration of Silver Jubilee?

(A) 25

(B) 40

(C) 50

(D) 60

Ans (A)

24. Imperial Banks were amalgamated and changed as _________

(A) Reserve Bank of India

(B) State Bank of India

(C) Subsidiary Banks

(D) Union Bank of India

Ans (B)

25. The viceroy in whose period Indian Legislative Councils Act, 1909 was enacted?

(A) Lord William Benting

(B) Lord Marley Minto

(C) Lord Rippon

(D) Lord Curson

Ans (B)

SSC (CPO) SUB-INSPECTORS EXAM SOLVED PAPER

2010-03-16T05:37:00.001-07:00

SSC (CPO) SUB-INSPECTORS EXAM SOLVED PAPER

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

1. In which State was the first non- Congress Government set up in Independent India?
(a) Punjab (b) Bihar
(c) Maharashtra (d) Kerala.
2. Cheep money means
(a) low rates of interest. (b) low level of saving.
(c) low level of income. (d) low level of standard of living.
3. Under the rules of the IMR, each member is required to declare the par value of its legal tender money in terms of the US dollars and
(a) Silver. (b) Gold.
(c) Pound Sterling. (d) Diamond.
4. The Government takes ‘Ways and means advances’ from
(a) RBI. (b) IDBI.
(c) SBI. (d) ICICI.
5. Kisan Credit Card Scheme was introduced in
(a) 1991. (b) 1996.
(c) 1998. (d) 2000.
6. Compared to the rich the poor save
(a) a large part of their income. (b) an equal part of their income.
(c) a smaller part of their income.(d) all of their incomes.
7. One of the main factors that led to rapid expansion of Indian exports is
(a) imposition of import duties. (b) liberalization of the economy.
(c) recession in other countries. (d) diversification of exports.
8. When too much money is chasing too few goods, the situation is
(a) Deflation. (b) Inflation.
(c) Recession. (d) Stagflation.
9. With which crop has Green Revolution been associated?
(a) Rice (b) Wheat
(c) Pulses (d) Sugarcane.
10. Who was the first Indian Governor-General of India ?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar (b) C.Rajagopalachari
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
11. A candidate, to become a member of the Rajya Sabha, should not be less than
(a) 21 years of age. (b) 25 years of age.
(c) 30 years of age. (d) 32 years of age.
12. Which Constitutional Amendment gave precedence to the Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights?
(a) 42nd (b) 44th
(c) 52nd (d) 56th .
13. Nov. 26, 1949 is a significant day in the history of our constitution because
(a) India took a pledge of complete independence on this day.
(b) the Constitution was adopted on this day.
(c) India became a Republic on the day.
(d) the first amendment of the Constitution was passed on this day.
14. Which of the following expressions does not figure in the Preamble to the India Constitutions?
(a) Sovereign Democratic Republic
(b) Socialist (c) Secular
(d) Federal.
15. Which one of the following Presidents of India served for two terms?
(a) S.Radhakrishnan (b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) Zakir Hussain (d) V.V. Giri.
16. The maximum strength of the elected members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) is
(a) 530. (b) 545.
(c) 540. (d) 550.
17. How many readings does a non-Money Bill have in each House of the Parliament?
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) One.
18. Money Bill can be introduced in the State Legislative Assembly with the prior permission of the
(a) Governor of the State.
(b) Chief Minister of the State.
(c) Speaker of Legislative Assembly.
(d) Finance Minister of the State
19. The Prime Minister who was voted out of power by the Parliament was
(a) Indira Gandhi. (b) Morarji Desai.
(c) V.P. Singh. (d) Chandrashekhar.
20. The Union Parliament consists of
(a) the President of India.
(b) the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
(c) the House of the People (Lok Sabha)
(d) All of these.
21. The Indian National Congress had passed the famous resolution on "Non-Cooperation" in 1920 as its session held at
(a) Lucknow. (b) Delhi.
(c) Bombay. (d) Calcutta.
22. Who is known as the ‘Grand Old Man of India’?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) Gopal Krishan Gokhale
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (d) Surendranath Banerjee.
23. Which of the following can be considered as the most useful and outstanding reforms made by Lord Curzon, especially in respect of the people living in the undivided province of Punjab?
(a) Educational Reforms (b) Police Reforms
(c) Industrial Reforms (d) Agricultural Reforms
24. Who among the following was sent as an Ambassasdor to the royal court of Jahangir by James I, the then King of England?
(a) John Hawkins (b) William Todd
(c) Sir Thomas Roe (d) Sir Walter Raleigh.
25. ‘Dyarchy’ was introduced in the Government of India Act of
(a) 1909. (b) 1919.
(c) 1935. (d) None of these.
26. The transfer of Government from the ‘Company’ to the ‘Crown’ was pronounced by Lord Canning (Nov. 1, 1858) at
(a) Calcutta. (b) Delhi.
(c) Patan. (d) Allahabad.
27. The India National Congress and the Muslim League came closer to each other in 1916 at
(a) Lahore. (b) Amritsar.
(c) Lucknow. (d) Haripura.
28. The first General-Secretary of the Indian National Congress was
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) A.O. Hume
(c) Ferozeshah Mehta (d) Badruddin Tyabji.
29. Raja Rammohun Roy organized a historic agitation against the
(a) caste system. (b) evil custom of sati.
(c) degrading position of women in society
(d) Practice of superfluous religious rituals.
30. "Long years ago we made a tryst with destiny, and now the time comes when we shall redeem our pledge…"
This was stated on the night of Aug. 14, 1947 by
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. (b) C.Rajagopalachari.
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru. (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
31. The highest grade and best quality coal is
(a) Lignite. (b) Peat.
(c) Bituminous. (d) Anthracite.
32. The "Dark Continent" is
(a) Africa. (b) South America.
(c) Australia. (d) Asia.
33. Which one of the following is the wettest place in India?
(a) Mahabaleshwar (b) Cherrapunji
(c) Udhagamandalam (d) Mawsynram.
34. The approximate length of the coast-line of India is
(a) 5,500 km. (b) 6,000 km.
(c) 6,500 km. (d) 7,000 km.
35. The area with annual rainfall less than 50 cm in a year is
(a) Meghalaya. (b) Leh in Kashmir.
(c) Coromandel (d) Konkan coast.
36. Silent Valley of Kerala
(a) is the only evergreen forest in India.
(b) contains costly timber trees.
(c) is a good picnic spot.
(d) contains rare species of plants and animals.
37. The only sanctuary where Kashmir stag is found is
(a) Kanha. (b) Dachigam.
(c) Gir. (d) Mudumalai.
38. The Visvesvaraya Iron & Steel Ltd. is located at
(a) Bangalore. (b) Bhadravati.
(c) Mangalore. (d) Mysore.
39. Which dam of India is the highest?
(a) Mettur (b) Rihand
(c) Thein (d) Bhakra.
40. Of the gross cropped area in India, the foodgrains occupy
(a) more than 70 per cent. (b) 60 to 70 per cent.
(c) 50 to 60 per cent. (d) less than 50 per cent.
41. Kaziranga National Park is famous for
(a) Rhinoceros. (b) Tiger.
(c) Lion. (d) Crocodile.
42. The colour of human skin is produced by
(a) Haemoglobin. (b) Insulin.
(c) Adrenaline. (d) Melanin.
43. Which one of the following is not transmitted via blood transfusion?
(a) Hepatitis (b) Typhoid
(c) HIV (d) Malaria
44. Which of the following is a fish?
(a) Silverfish (b) Starfish
(c) Dogfish (d) Cuttlefish
45. Which of the following instruments is used to measure humidity?
(a) Kata Thermometer (b) Anemometer
(c) Sling Psychrometer (d) Clinical Thermometer
46. The period of revolution of a geostationary satellite is
(a) 24 hours (b) 30 days.
(c) 365 days. (d) changing, continuously.
47. The type of mirrors used in the headlamp of cars is
(a) parabolic concave (b) plane
(c) spherical convex (d) cylindrical concave
48. Nuclear explosive devices were tested in India at
(a) Sriharikota (b) Bangalore
(c) Pokharan (d) Kanchipuram
49. The gradation and standardization of agricultural products are conducted through
(a) Food Corporation of India.
(b) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection.
(c) Indian Standards Institution.
(d) Central Statistical Organization.
50. The luster of the metals is because of
(a) high density, due to closed packing of atoms.
(b) high polish
(c) reflection of light due to the presence of free electrons.
(d) absorption of light due to the presence of cavities
51. Flat footed camels can walk easily in sandy deserts because
(a) pressure on the sand is decreased by increasing the area of the surface in contact.
(b) pressure on the stand is increased by increasing the area of the surface in contact.
(c) pressure on the sand is decreased by decreasing the area of the surface in contact.
(d) pressure on the sand is increased by decreasing the area of the surface in contact.
52. The reason for a swimming pool to appear less deep than the actual depth is
(a) refraction. (b) light scattering.
(c) reflection. (d) interference.
53. Alternating current is converted into direct current by a
(a) transformer. (b) dynamo
(c) oscillator. (d) rectifier.
54. German silver used for making utensils is an alloy of
(a) copper, silver, nickel. (b) copper, zinc, nickel.
(c) copper, zinc, aluminium (d) copper, nickel, aluminium.
55. Which one of the following is used to dissolve noble metals?
(a) Nitric acid (b) Hydrochloric acid
(c) Sulphuric acid (d) Aqua regia.
56. Gunpowder was invented by
(a) Roger Bacon. (b) Colt.
(c) C.V. Raman. (d) Dr. Gatting.
57. The purity of gold is expressed in carats. The purest form of gold is
(a) 24 carats. (b) 99.6 carats.
(c) 91.6 carats. (d) 22 carats.
58. Petroleum consists of a mixture of
(a) Carbohydrates. (b) Carbonates.
(c) Hydrocarbons. (d) Carbides.
59. For which invention is Otto Hahn famous?
(a) Atom bomb. (b) Television
(c) X-rays (d) Miner’s safety lamp.
60. Which one of the following is not a plant product?
(a) Caffeine (b) Piperine
(c) Nicotine (d) Saccharin.
61. Which of the statements is correct about India’s national income?
(a) Percentage share of agriculture is higher than services
(b) Percentage share of industry is higher than agriculture
(c) Percentage share of services is higher than industry
(d) Percentage share of services is higher than agriculture and industry put together.
62. Who among the following has been appointed as the eleventh President of the World Bank for a five- year term with effect from July 1, 2007?
(a) John Wolfensohn (b) Paul Wolfowiz
(c) Robert Zoellick (d) David Morgan.
63. Who among the following has been awarded the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2005?
(a) Aparna Sen (b) Govind Nihalani
(c) M.S. Sathyu (d) Shyam Benegal
64. Permanent Revenue Settlement of Bengal was introduced by
(a) Lord Clive (b) Lord Hastings
(c) Lord Wellesley (d) Lord Cornwallis
65. In which year was the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) founded?
(a) 1967 (b) 1969
(c) 1970 (d) 1974.
66. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Indonesia – Jakarta (b) Maldives –Male
(c) North Korea- Seoul (d) Zimbabwe- Harare.
67. Which of the following is the largest parliamentary constituency in terms of area?
(a) Barmer (Rajasthan) (b) Arunachal West (Arunachal Pradesh)
(c) Ladakh (Jammu & Kashmir) (d) Uttarakhand East (Uttarakhand)
68. The first Commonwealth Games were held in the year 1930 at
(a) London (the UK). (b) Sydney (Australia)
(c) Hamilton (Canada). (d) Auckland (New Zealand).
69. The Nuclear Non- Proliferation Treaty came into force in
(a) 1967 (b) 1970
(c) 1971 (d) 1974.
70. Which State of India has the largest percentage of poor?
(a) Bihar (b) Chhatrisgarh
(c) Orissa (d) Jharkhand
71. The island of Corsica is associated with
(a) Mussolini (b) Hitler
(c) Napolean Bonaparte. (d) Winston Churchill.
72. The headquarters of Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries is located in
(a) Vienna. (b) Riyadh.
(c) Kuwait City. (d) Abu Dhabi.
73. When are the 19th Commonwealth Games scheduled to be held in Delhi?
(a) December, 2008 (b) November, 2009
(c) October, 2010 (d) February, 2011.
74. Jamini Roy distinguished himself in the field of
(a) Badminton (b) Painting
(c) Theatre (d) Sculpture.
75. What percentage of India population is below the official poverty line?
(a) Below 30 per cent (b) 30 per cent to 35 per cent
(c) Above 35 per cent but below 40 per cent
(d) Between 40 per cent and 45 per cent.

ANSWERS

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c)
6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b)
16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (b)
26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (b)
36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (c)
46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (d)
56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (d)
61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (d) 65. (b)
66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (b) 70. (c)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (a)

Banking and Marketing Aptitude Questions

2010-03-16T05:32:00.000-07:00

Banking and Marketing Aptitude Questions

1. A prospect means

a) any customer who walks into the bank

b) an employee of the bank

c) a customer who is likely to be interested in bank’s product or service

d) a depositor of the bank’

e) a borrower of the bank

2. A lead means

a) a prospect who is more likely to avail of the Bank’s product

b) a political leader

c) a religious leader

d) a bank chairman

e) None of these

3. Innovation means

a) Compensation

b) inspiration

c) additional perquisites

d) implementing new ideas or new methods

e) None of these

4. A Call means

a) calling on friends

b) calling on bank employees

c) calling on prospective customers

d) to make telephone calls

e) calling on relatives

5. The Traditional Marketing style involves

a) Telemarketing

b) Digital Marketing

c) Indirect Marketing

d) Direct Marketing

e) All of these

6. Modern Method of Marketing include

a) Publicity on the net

b) Advertisement on the net

c) Soliciting business through e-mails

d) Tele marketing

e) All of these

7. A true marketing requires

a) Command and other mindset

b) Control Mindset

c) Passive mindset

d) Active mindset

e) None of these

8. Which of the following sentences is true?

a) Marketing is not required in a Buyers’ Market

b) Marketing is not required in a Sellers’s market

c) Marketing is not required due to competition

d) Marketing is not required due to liberalization

e) Marketing is not required due to globalisation

9. For effective marketing the salesmen should have which of these qualities?

a) Creativity

b) Team spirit

c) Motivation

d) Effective communication skills

e) All of these

10. Market information means

a) Knowledge of shops and bazaars

b) Knowledge of shopping malls

c) Knowledge of customer profile and product mix

d) knowledge of various languages

e) None of these

11. Market Research is needed for

a) checking the market area

b) checking the right product to be sold

c) making proper marketing decisions

d) deciding right time to sell

e) All of these

12. Which of the following statement is true

a) Marketing makes the company to go into loss due to higher expenses

b) Marketing is not required in profit making companies

c) Marketing sharpens the minds of the employees

d) Marketing is a time bound seasonal function

e) Marketing is a waste of time

13. Marketing plan helps in

a) better lead generation

b) better systems

c) better results

d) improved balance sheet

e) better customer service

14. If Marketing is done effectively which of the following is not required?

a) Advertisement

b) Publicity

c) Market Research

d) Market Segmentation

e) None of these

15. Motivation means

a) Inspiring employees to perform better

b) Better communication skills

c) Sales Coaching

d) Market Research

e) None of these

16. In a Selling Process in today’s world?

a) Only standard products are sold

b) No customization required

c) the seller need not have product knowledge

d) the seller should aim at customer satisfaction

e) only quantum of sales matters

17. Find the true statement

a) Marketing is a waste of the employees’ time

b) Marketing is not required in India due to its vast population

c) Marketing involves additional work

d) Marketing involves team work

e) Marketing is not required today due to IT advancement

18. A Target market is

a) entire country

b) entire city

c) entire globe

d) that which consists of customers who need the identified product

e) all of these

19. Sales forecasting involves

a) Sales Planning

b) Sales Pricing

c) Distribution Channels

d) Consumer tastes

e) All of these

20. Which of the following product is being sold under the brand name ZODIAC

a) Shirts

b) Ties

c) Both A and B

d) Liberty

21. SWIFT - cars are being manufactured by

a) DCM

b) Maruti

c) Premier Automobiles

d) Hyundai

22. With you all the way is the slogan of

a) Vodafone

b) SBI

c) ICICI

d) Raymonds

23. Which company used the slogan "The complete Man"

a) DCM

b) GRASIM

c) RAYMONDS

d) VIMAL

24. Which brand uses the slogan "Made for each other" for its cigarettes?

a) Cavenders

b) Four Square

c) Red & White

d) Wills

25. Cross Selling means

a) Identifying customer needs

b) matching the products to customer needs

c) convincing the customers of product benefits

d) responding to questions and objections of customers

e) all of these

ANSWERS

1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (d) 4 ( c) 5 (d) 6 (e) 7 (d) 8 (b)

9 (e) 10 (c) 11 (e) 12 (c) 13 (c) 14 (b) 15 (a) 16 (d)

17 (d) 18 (d) 19 (e) 20 (c) 21 (b) 22 (b) 23 (c) 24 (d)

25 (e)

Computer General Awareness For Bank PO 2010

2010-03-14T00:13:00.000-08:00

Computer General Awareness For Bank PO 2010

1. In a survey of more than 500 companies and government agencies, ____________ percent detected computer security breaches.
A. 20
B. 75
C. 85
D. 99
Answer: C
2. The survey showed that these businesses lost more than ____________ due to security breaches.
A. $100,000 each
B. $377 million
C. five employees each
D. $1 million
Answer: B
3. The typical computer criminal is a(n):
A. young hacker.
B. trusted employee with no criminal record.
C. trusted employee with a long, but unknown criminal record.
D. overseas young cracker.
Answer: B
4. The majority of computer crimes are committed by:
A. hackers.
B. insiders.
C. overseas criminals.
D. young teenage computer geniuses.
Answer: B
5. The common name for the crime of stealing passwords is:
A. spooling.
B. identity theft.
C. spoofing.
D. hacking.
Answer: C Reference: Theft by Computer
6. Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual is known as the crime of:
A. spooling.
B. identity theft.
C. spoofing.
D. hacking.
Answer: B
7. Malicious software is known as:
A. badware.
B. malware.
C. maliciousware.
D. illegalware.
Answer: B
8. A program that performs a useful task while simultaneously allowing destructive acts is a:
A. worm.
B. Trojan horse.
C. virus.
D. macro virus.
Answer: B Moderate
9. An intentionally disruptive program that spreads from program to program or from disk to disk is known as a:
A. Trojan horse.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. time-related bomb sequence.
Answer: B
10. In 1999, the Melissa virus was a widely publicized:
A. e-mail virus.
B. macro virus.
C. Trojan horse.
D. Time bomb.
Answer: A
11. What type of virus uses computer hosts to reproduce itself?
A. Time bomb
B. Worm
C. Melissa virus
D. Macro virus
Answer: B

12. The thing that eventually terminates a worm virus is a lack of:
A. memory or disk space.
B. time.
C. CD drive space.
D. CD-RW.
Answer: A
13. When a logic bomb is activated by a time-related event, it is known as a:
A. time-related bomb sequence.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. Trojan horse.
Answer: C
14. A logic bomb that was created to erupt on Michelangelo’s birthday is an example of a:
A. time-related bomb sequence.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. Trojan horse.
Answer: C
15. What is the name of an application program that gathers user information and sends it to someone through the Internet?
A. A virus
B. Spybot
C. Logic bomb
D. Security patch
Answer: B

16. Standardization of Microsoft programs and the Windows operating system has made the spread of viruses:
A. more complicated.
B. more difficult.
C. easier.
D. slower.
Answer: C
17. HTML viruses infect:
A. your computer.
B. a Web page in the HTML code.
C. both a Web page and the computer that is viewing it.
D. No
18. Software programs that close potential security breaches in an operating system are known as:
A. security breach fixes.
B. refresh patches.
C. security repairs.
D. security patches.
Answer: D
19. When customers of a Web site are unable to access it due to a bombardment of fake traffic, it is known as:
A. a virus.
B. a Trojan horse.
C. cracking.
D. a denial of service attack.
Answer: D
20. ___________ is the measurement of things such as fingerprints and retinal scans used for security access.
A. Biometrics
B. Biomeasurement
C. Computer security
D. Smart weapon machinery
Answer: A
21. What is the most common tool used to restrict access to a computer system?
A. User logins
B. Passwords
C. Computer keys
D. Access-control software
Answer: B
22. The most common passwords in the U.S. or Britain include all EXCEPT:
A. love.
B. Fred.
C. God.
D. 123.
Answer: D
23. Hardware or software designed to guard against unauthorized access to a computer network is known as a(n):
A. hacker-proof program.
B. firewall.
C. hacker-resistant server.
D. encryption safe wall.
Answer: B
24. The scrambling of code is known as:
A. encryption.
B. a firewall.
C. scrambling.
D. password-proofing.
Answer: A
25. If you want to secure a message, use a(n):
A. cryptology source.
B. encryption key.
C. encryption software package.
D. cryptosystem.
Answer: D Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography
26. To prevent the loss of data during power failures, use a(n):
A. encryption program.
B. surge protector.
C. firewall.
D. UPS.
Answer: D
27. A(n) ____________ can shield electronic equipment from power spikes.
A. encryption program
B. surge protector
C. firewall
D. UPS
Answer: B
28. All of these are suggestions for safe computing EXCEPT:
A. don’t borrow disks from other people.
B. open all e-mail messages but open them slowly.
C. download shareware and freeware with caution.
D. disinfect your system.
Answer: B
29. Freeware ___________ encrypts data.
A. encryption
B. firewall software
C. PGP
D. private and public keys
Answer: C
30. ____________ is defined as any crime completed through the use of computer technology.
A. Computer forensics
B. Computer crime
C. Hacking
D. Cracking
Answer: B
31. Most computer systems rely solely on ___________ for authentication.
A. logins
B. passwords
C. encryption
D. lock and key
Answer: B
32. Creating strong computer security to prevent computer crime usually simultaneously helps protect :
A. privacy rights.
B. personal ethics.
C. the number of cookies downloaded to your personal computer.
D. personal space.
Answer: A
33. Over ___________ was spent by businesses and government to repair problems in regard to Y2K.
A. 20 million dollars
B. 100 million dollars
C. 1 billion dollars
D. 100 billion dollars
Answer: D
34. What is a complex system that takes on nearly complete responsibility for a task eliminating the need for people, verification, or decision making?
A. Autonomous system
B. Missile defense auto-system
C. Smart weapon
D. Independent system
Answer: D
35. Security procedures can:
A. will eliminate all computer security risk.
B. reduce but not eliminate risks.
C. are prohibitively expensive.
D. are inaccessible for the average home user.
Answer: B
Fill in the Blank:

36. The field of computer ____________ uses special software to scan hard drives of potential criminal suspects.
Answer: forensics Reference: Online Outlaws: Computer Crime Difficulty: Challenging
37. Computer ____________ often goes unreported because businesses fear negative publicity.
Answer: crime
38. ____________ connections are the most frequent point of attack for Internet commerce.
Answer: Internet
39. ____________ is the most common form of computer crime.
Answer: Theft
40. A survey by eMarketer.com found that ____________ are the most often cited online fraud cases.
Answer: online auctions Reference: Identity Theft
41. Theft of computers is most common for PDAs and ____________ computers.
Answer: notebook
42. When you use a disk in several different computers within the same day, you are taking the chance of contracting a(n) ____________.
Answer: virus Reference: Viruses Difficulty: Easy
43. A(n) ____________ attaches itself to documents that contain embedded programs that automate tasks.
Answer: macro virus
44. Both viruses and ____________ use computer hosts to replicate.
Answer: worms
45. ____________ programs search for and eliminate viruses.
Answer: Antivirus
46. A security patch is a software program that closes possible security breaches in the operating system. The cost to the consumer is ____________.
Answer: nothing or free
47. ____________ was once the word used for malicious computer wizardry.
Answer: Hackers or hacking
48. ____________ refers to electronic trespassing or criminal hacking.
Answer: Cracking
49. DoS stands for ___________.
Answer: denial of service
50. DDoS stands for ___________.
Answer: distributed denial of service
51. ____________ hijack Web pages and redirect users to other sites.
Answer: Webjackers
52. ___________ software monitors and records computer transactions.
Answer: Audit-control
53. Each individual who uses a public key cryptosystem has ___________ keys.
Answer: two Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography
54. PGP stands for ___________.
Answer: Pretty Good Privacy
55. Most operating systems, including Windows XP, assign each user a unique ___________.
Answer: user identifier or user ID
56. It should now be common knowledge that users should not open ___________ from e-mail recipients that the user does not know.
Answer: attachments
Matching:

57. Match the acts and centers with their purposes:
I. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act A. created by Attorney General Janet Reno in 1998
II. USA Patriot Act B. defines what kinds of communications are legal online
III. Digital Millennium Copyright Act C. created in 2001 as a response to the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001
IV. Telecommunications Act of 1996 D. provides instant information on crimes and criminals
V. Communications Decency Act E. declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court
VI. National Infrastructure Protection Center F. created as a result of the first headline-making worm
VII. National Crime Information Center G. used to arrest a student for writing to crack an Adobe product
Answers: F, C, G, B, E, A, D

58. Match the following rules of thumb about safe computing with the proper descriptions:
I. share with care A. be aware of e-mail from what appear to be legitimate companies
II. handle e-mail carefully B. don’t choose a dictionary word
III. disinfect regularly C. keep your disks in your own computer
IV. take your password seriously D. copy, copy, copy
V. if it’s important, back it up E. encrypt
VI. sensitive info over the Internet? F. use antivirus software
Answers: C, A, F, B, D, E

RRB Kolkata Commercial Apprentice Exam 2009

2010-03-13T00:21:00.000-08:00

RRB Kolkata Commercial Apprentice Exam 2009

Reasoning
Directions—(Q. 1-5)
Facing towards centre, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle.
F is third from B’s right which is third from H’s right.
A is third from H’s left C is fourth from A’s left
E is third from D’s right, Which is not A’s neighbour.
1. In which of the following pairs, second one is immediately right to the first one ?
(A)FA
(B) GB
(C)BE
(D) None of these
2. Who is second to the D’s left?
(A)A
(B)G
(C)DG
(D) Data insufficient
3. Who is third to the G’s left?
(A)F
(B)C
(C)H
(D)D
4.Who is fourth to the C’s left?
(A)A
(B)E
(C)F
(D) Data insufficient
5. What is the place of ‘B’ with reference to D ?
(I) Fourth-Right
(II)Fourth-Left
(III)Fifth-Left
(IV)Fifth-Right
(A) Only I
(B) Only I and II
(C) Only II
(D) Only Ill and IV
English language
Directions—(Q 6-8) Which of the following is correctly spelt?
6.
(A)Appologise
(B) Apologise
(C)Appalogise
(D) Apollogise
7.
(A) Destinguishably
(B) Distenguishably
(C) Distinguishably
(D) Disifinguishably
8.
(A) Assignment
(B) Asignment
(C) Assignmant
(D) Acinement
Directions—(Q. 9 and 10) Choose the one which best expresses the same sentence in lndirect/Direct Speech
9. I don’t know the way. Do you ? he asked—
(A) He asked me if I knew the way which he didn’t.
(B) He said that he didn’t know the way and asked me I did.
(C) He told that he was not knowing the way, but wondered if knew.
(D) He said that he didn’t know the way and did I know it.
10. Animals which feed on grass are called —
(A) Cannibals
(B) Omnivorous
(C) Herbivorous
(D) Carnivorous

Directions—(Q. 11—15) Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given capital.
11. CONSEQUENCE
(A)Result
(B) End
(C)Proof
(D) Conclusion
12. DISCLOSE
(A) Express
(B) Reveal
(C)Report
(D) Blackmail
13.ASSURANCE
(A) Suspicion
(B) Promise
(C) Suggestion
(D) Blackmail
14. ACCESS
(A) Entry
(B) Permission
(C) Nearness
(D) Exit
7. ANXIOUS
(A) Serious
(B) Eager
(C) Worried
(D) Forced
Maths/physics
16. 1 kg mass has a potential energy of 1 joule relative to the ground when it is at a height of?
(A) 0.102 m
(B) 1 m
(C)9.8m
(D) 32m
17. A particle moves in a circle of radius r. In half the period of revolution, its displacement ,distance covered are—
(A) 2r,?r
(B) r?2, ?r
(C) 2?,?r
(D)r,?r
18. A fort has provisions for 80 days. If after 15 days 500 men strengthen them and the food lasts 40 days thereafter, how many men were there in the fort?
(A)3,500
(8) 4,000
(C)6,000
(D) 10,000
19. The ratio of marks obtained by Vinod and Vasu is 6: 5. If the combined average of their percentage is 68.75 and their sum of the marks is 275, the total marks for which exam was conducted
is?
(A) 150
(B) 200
(C) 400
(D) 500
20. A zookeeper counted the heads of the animals in a zoo and found it to be 80. When he counted the legs of the animals he found it to be 260. If the zoo had either pigeons or horses, how many horses were there in the zoo?
(A)40
(B) 30
(C)50
(D) 60
21. A Railway halt ticket costs half the full fare and the reservation charge is the same on half ticket on full ticket. One reserved first class ticket from Chennai to Trivandrum costs Rs, 216 and one full reserved and one-half reserved first class tickets cost As. 327. What is the basic first class full fare and what is the reservation charge?
(A) Rs 105 and Rs.6
(B) As. 216 and Rs. 12
(C) Rs. 210 and Rs. 12
(D) Rs 210and Rs.6
22. If each child is given 10 sweets, there are 3 sweets left over. But if each is given 11, then the number of sweet is 4 less. Find the number of sweets—
(A)37
(B) 73
(C)75
(D) 57
23. The product of the digits of a two digit number is 24. If its unit’s exceeds twice its ten’s digit by 2, find the number?
(A) 46
(B) 64
(C) 38
(D) 21
24. The number of triangles possible in a regular octagon is?
(A)326
(B) 120
(C)56
(D) 28
25. A stairway 10 ft high is such that each step accounts for half a foot upward and one foot forward. What distance will an ant travel if it starts from ground level to reach the lop of the stairway?
(A)30 ft.
(B) 33ft.
(C)10 ft.
(D) 29ft.
26. If the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon measures up to 1440 degrees, how many sides does the polygon have?
(A)10
(B) 8
(C)12
(D) 9
27. If the diagonal and the area of a rectangle are 25 m and 168 vu what is the length of the rectangle?
(A)17m
(B) 31m
(C)12m
(D) 24m
28. A force F is applied on a square plate of side L. If the percentage error in the determination of L is 2% and that of F is 4%, the maximum permissible error in
pressure is?
(A)2%
(B) 4%
(C)6%
(D) 8%
29. Two forces, equal in magnitude, have a resultant with its magnitude equal to either. The angle between them is?
(A)45°
(B) 60°
(C)90°
(D) 120°
30. A trader increases the cost of an article by 10% and gives 5% discount. Find his profit or loss
(A) 10% profit
(B) 10% loss
(C) 4.5% loss
(D) 4.5% profit
31. A student secured 210 marks in an examination and failed by 21 marks. If the pass marks are 33%
find the maximum marks—
(A)700
(B) 610
(C)800
(D) 720
32. If simple interest on Rs. 600 for 4 years and on Rs. 600 for 2 years, combined together is Rs. 180, find the rate of interest?
(A) 5.5%
(B) 5%
(C) 6%
(D) 4%
33. A group of labour wished to complete the work in 25 days. But 10 labourers did not turn-up and the work got completed in 35 days.
Find the approximate number of labourers in the beginning?
(A)30
(B) 25
(C)35
(D) 20
34. A clock shows 6 hrs. 40 min. What time will the plane mirror, kept before it, show?
(A) 3:20 hrs.
(B) 6:20 hrs.
(C) 4:20 hrs
(D) 9:20 hrs
35. In a party 15 people shake their hands with each other. How many times did the hand-shake take place?
(A) 165
(B) 120
(C) 135
(D) 105
36. A is father of B, who is sister of C, but C is neither B’s sister, nor A’s daughter. D is mother of B and C, how C is related to D?
(A) Nephew
(B) Son
(C)Niece
(D) Daughter
37. The selling price of a pen is Rs.16. If the shopkeeper bears the per cent loss equal to its cost price find out its cost price?
(A)Rs. 20
(B) Rs. 25
(C)Rs.35
(D) Rs.30
38. A train 160 m long crosses 160 m long platform in 16 seconds.The speed of the train is?
(A)72 km/h
(B) 75 km/h
(C)45 km/h
(D) 60 km/h
39. In a class of 30 students and 2 teachers, the students got sweets worth 20% of the total number of students and teacher got sweets worth 30% of the total number of students.
Find the total quantity of the sweets
(A)208
(B) 178
(C)188
(D) None of these
40. A man takes 8 minutes to type a page. If 1710 pages are to be typed in the afternoon between 1 O’clock to 2 O’ clock, how many men are required ?
(A)249
(B) 221
(C)256
(D) None of these
Ans:
1:D 2:A 3:B 4:A 5:B 6:B
7:C 8:A 9:B 10:C 11:A 12:B
13:B 14:A 15:B 16:A 17:A 18:B
19:B 20:C 21:D 22::B 23:C 24:C
25:D 26:A 27:D 28:D 29:D 30:D
31:A 32:B 33:C 34:A 35:D 36:B
37:A 38:A 39:D 40:D 228 persons

MATHEMATICS TEST FOR FORTHCOMMING EXAMS

2010-03-11T01:05:00.000-08:00

MATHEMATICS TEST FOR FORTHCOMMING EXAMS
BANK PO, MBA, RAILWAY TC / ASM/ , BANK CLERK
1. An instrument store gives a 10% discount to all students off the original cost of an instrument. During a back to school sale an additional 15% is taken off the discounted price. Julie, a student at the local high school, purchases a flute for $306. How much did it originally cost?
A. $325
B. $375
C. $400
D. $408
E. $425
2. If y(x-1)=z then x=
A. y-z
B. z/y + 1
C. y(z-1)
D. z(y-1)
E. 1-zy
3. Which of the following values is NOT equal to 34(58+9)?
A. 34 x 67
B. 58(34+9)
C. 34 x 58 + 34 x 9
D. 1,972 + 306
E. (9 + 58) 34
4. Two angles of a triangle measure 15° and 85 °. What is the measure for the third angle?
A. 50°
B. 55°
C. 60°
D. 80°
E. 90°
5. If 5 ounces is equal to 140 grams, then 2 pounds of ground meat is equal to how many grams?
A. 863
B. 878
C. 896
D. 915
E. 932
6. Which year did the most children take swimming lessons?
A. 1990
B. 1991
C. 1992
D. 1994
E. 1995
7. Between which year did the largest decrease in children taking swimming lessons occur?
A. 1990-1991
B. 1991-1992
C. 1992-1993
D. 1993-1994
E. 1994-1995
8. What was the average number of children taking swim lessons from 1990 to 1995?
A. 250
B. 308
C. 385
D. 450
E. 1,850
9. Which of the following is equal to 5.93 x 10^-2?
A. 0.0593
B. 0.00593
C. 593
D. 5930
E. 59300
10. On a Map, 1 inch represents 20 miles. The distance between 2 towns is 6 1/5 inches. How many miles are actually between the two towns?
A. 65 miles
B. 84 miles
C. 124 miles
D. 138 miles
E. 145 miles
11. Which of the following is a correct graph of x>1, x <4?
A. Line A
B. Line B
C. Line C
D. Line D
E. Line E
12. How many cubed pieces of fudge that are 3 inches on an edge can be packed into a Christmas tin that is 9 inches deep by 12 inches wide by 8 inches high with the lid still being able to be closed?
A. 18
B. 24
C. 32
D. 36
E. 43
13. Suyash is twice as old as her youngest brother. If the difference between their ages is 15 years. How old is her youngest brother?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
E. 30
14. Which of the following fractions is equal to 5/6?
A. 20/30
B. 15/24
C. 25/30
D. 40/54
E. 2/7
15. What will it cost to tile a kitchen floor that is 12 feet wide by 20 feet long if the tile cost $8.91 per square yard?
A. $224.51
B. $237.60
C. $246.55
D. $271.38
E. $282.32
16. In a writing competition, the first place winner receives ½ of the prize money. The second runner up receives ¼ of what the winner won. What was the total amount of prize money distributed if the winner receives $6,000?
A. $6,000
B. $8,500
C. $12,000
D. $15,000
E. $18,500
17. You are lying 120 ft away from a tree that is 50 feet tall. You look up at the top of the tree. Approximately how far is your hear from the top of the tree in a straight line?
A. 50 feet
B. 75 feet
C. 120 feet
D. 130 feet
E. 150 feet
18. A cyclist bikes x distance at 10 miles per hour and returns over the same path at 8 miles per hour. What is the cyclist's average rate for the round trip in miles per hour?
A. 8.1
B. 8.3
C. 8.6
D. 8.9
E. 9.0
19. If edging cost $2.32 per 12-inch stone, and you want a double layer of edging around your flower bed that is 6 yards by 1 yard. How much will edging you flower bed cost?
A. $32.48
B. $64.96
C. $97.44
D. $129.92
E. $194.88
20. If 3x=6x-15 then x + 8=
A. 5
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
E. 13
21. The number of milliliters in 1 liter is
A. 10,000
B. 1,000
C. 0.1
D. 0.01
E. 0.001
22. The cost to ride on a ferry is $5.00 per vehicle and driver with an additional cost of 50 cents per passenger. If the charge to get on the ferry is $6.50, how many people were in the vehicle?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
23. What is 1/9 of 9?
A. 1/9
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2
E. 3
24. In his pocket, a boy has 3 red marbles, 4 blue marbles, and 4 green marbles. How many will he have to take out of his pocket to ensure that he has taken out at least one of each color?
A. 3
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
E. 11
25. Which fraction is equal to 0.20%?
A. 1/20
B. 1/40
C. 1/50
D. 1/400
E. 1/500
26. Find the missing term in the following sequence: 4, 9, 19, __, 79
A. 36
B. 37
C. 38
D. 39
E. 40
27. How much money did Jessica's budget allow for housing in April of 2001?
A. $617.80
B. $620.92
C. $622.50
D. $626.38
E. $633.20
28. What was the average amount of money that Jessica's budget allowed for clothing the first six months of 2001?
A. $249.90
B. $250.40
C. $251.32
D. $253.33
E. $255.75
29. If Jessica only spent 20% instead of the 25% allotment for food in May of 2001, how much did she save?
A. $131.10
B. $144.30
C. $148.32
D. $152.22
E. $153.33
30. Jonathan can type a 20 page document in 40 minutes, Susan can type it in 30 minutes, and Jack can type it in 24 minutes. Working together, how much time will it take them to type the same document?
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 18 minutes
E. 20 minutes
31. Of the following fractions, which is less than 2/3?
A. 7/8
B. 5/6
C. 3/4
D. 3/5
E. 5/7
32. A hockey team won 6 games and lost 8. What is the ratio of wins to number of games?
A. 6/8
B. 8/6
C. 3/7
D. 8/14
E. 6/7
33. Satyam receives a base salary of $90 weekly plus a 12% commission on all sales. Satyam had $3,000 in sales this week. How much did she make total?
A. $375
B. $450
C. $480
D. $510
E. $525
34. If the perimeter of a rectangular house is 25 1/3 yards, and the length is 22 feet. What is the width?
A. 16 feet
B. 35 feet
C. 37 feet
D. 40 feet
E. 42 feet
35. Piyush made a 15% profit on the sale of a custom designed boat, and the original cost of the boat was $15,000. The boat sold for how much?
A. $17,250.00
B. $16,540.44
C. $16,230.34
D. $15,980.55
E. $15,870.88
36. A recent study showed that an increase in body weight by 10 kilograms resulted in a 0.15% increase in heart disease. What fraction is equal to 0.15%?
A. 3/2000
B. 2/750
C. 7/4000
D. 5/3462
E. 1/500
37. 6.334 x 10⁴=
A. 0.0006334
B. 0.06334
C. 6334
D. 63340
E. 633400
38. If 3x + 5x = -8, then x + 1 =
A. -2
B. -1
C. 0
D. 1
E. 2
39. Two angle in a triangle equal 120°. What is the measure of the third angle?
A. 60°
B. 70°
C. 80°
D. 90°
E. 120°
40. Which of the following would be an appropriate unit to measure sugar for a cookie recipe?
A. liters
B. cups
C. quarts
D. kilograms
E. pounds
Answers
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. E 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. C
11. A 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. B 16. C 17. D 18. D 19. E 20. E
21. B 22. D 23. C 24. D 25. E 26. D 27. C 28. E 29. A 30. B
31. D 32. C 33. B 34. A 35. A 36. A 37. D 38. C 39. A 40. B

SNo	Discovery / Invention	Year	Discoverer / Inventor	Country
1	Adrenaline	1894	Schafer and Oliver	Britain
2	Anesthesia, Local	1885	Koller	Austria
3	Anesthesia, Spinal	1898	Bier	Germany
4	Anti-toxins (Science of Immunity)	1890	Behring and Kitasato	Germany, Japan
5	Aspirin	1889	Dreser	Germany
6	Ayurveda	2000-1000 BC		India
7	Bacteria	1683	Leeuwenhock	Netherlands
8	Bacteriology	1872	Ferdinand Cohn	Germany
9	Biochemistry	1648	Jan Baptista Van Helmont	Belgium
10	Blood Plasma storage (Blood bank)	1940	Drew	U.S.A
11	Blood Transfusion	1625	Jean-Baptiste Denys	France
12	Cardiac Pacemaker	1932	A.S Hyman	U.S.A
13	CAT Scanner	1968	Godfrey Hounsfield	Britain
14	Chemotherapy	1493-1541	Paracelsus	Switzerland
15	Chloroform as anaesthetic	1847	James Simpson	Britain
16	Chloromycetin	1947	Burkholder	U.S.A
17	Cholera T.B germs	1877	Robert Koch	Germany
18	Circulation of blood	1628	William Harvey	Britain
19	Cryo-Surgery	1953	Henry Swan	U.S.A
20	Diphtheria germs	1883-84	Klebs and Loffler	Germany
21	Electro-Cardiograph	1903	Willem Einthoven	Netherlands
22	Electro-encephalogram	1929	Hand Berger	Germany
23	Embryology	1792-1896	Kari Ernest Van Baer	Estonia
24	Endocrinology	1902	Bayliss and Starling	Britain
25	First Test Tube Baby	1978	Steptoe and Edwards	Britain
26	Gene Therapy on humans	1980	Martin Clive	U.S.A
27	Genes associated with cancer	1982	Robert Weinberg and others	U.S.A
28	Heart Transplant Surgery	1967	Christian Barnard	S. Africa
29	Histology	1771-1802	Marie Bichat	France
30	Hypodermic syringe	1853	Alexander wood	Britain
31	Kidney Machine	1944	Kolf	Netherlands
32	Leprosy Bacillus	1873	Hansen	Norway
33	LSD (Lysergic acid diethylamide)	1943	Hoffman	Switzerland
34	Malaria Germs	1880	Laveran	France
35	Morphine	1805	Friderich Sertumer	Germany
36	Neurology	1758-1828	Franz Joseph Gall	Germany
37	Nuclear magnetic resonance imaging	1971	Raymond Damadian	U.S.A
38	Open Heart Surgery	1953	Walton Lillehel	U.S.A
39	Oral Contraceptive Pills	1955	Gregory Pincus, Rock	U.S.A
40	Penicillin	1928	Alexander Fleming	Britain
41	Physiology	1757-66	Albrecht Von Haller	Switzerland
42	Positron emission Tomography	1978	Louis Sokoloff	U.S.A
43	Rabies Vaccine	1860	Louis Pasteur	France
44	Recombinant-DNA technology	1972-73	Paul Berg, H.W. Boyer,S Cohen	U.S.A
45	Reserpine	1949	Jal Vakil	India
46	Rh-factor	1940	Karl Landsteiner	U.S.A
47	Serology	1884-1915	Paul Ehrlich	Germany
48	Sex hormones	1910	Eugen Steinach	Australia
49	Small Pox eradicated	1980	W.H.O Declaration	UN
50	Stethoscope	1819	Rene Laennec	France
51	Streptomycin	1944	Selman Waksmann	U.S.A
52	Synthetic Antigens	1917	Landsteiner	U.S.A
53	Terramycin	1950	Finlay and Others	U.S.A
54	Thyroxin	1919	Edward Calvin-Kendall	U.S.A
55	Typhus Vaccine	1909	J. Nicolle	France
56	Vaccination	1796	Edward Jenner	Britain
57	Vaccine, Measles	1963	Enders	U.S.A
58	Vaccine, Meningitis	1987	Gardon, et al. Connaught Lab	U.S.A
59	Vaccine, Polio	1954	Jonas Salk	U.S.A
60	Vaccine, Polio-orai	1960	Albert Sabin	U.S.A
61	Vaccine, Rabies	1885	Louis Pasteur	France
62	Vaccine, Smallpox	1776	Jenner	Britain
63	Virology	1892	Ivanovski and Bajernick	USSR, Netherlands
64	Vitamin A	1913	Mc Collum and M. Davis	U.S.A
65	Vitamin B1	1936	Minot and Murphy	U.S.A
66	Vitamin C	1919	Froelich Holst	Norway
67	Vitamin D	1925	Mc Collum	U.S.A
68	Vitamin K	1938	Doisy Dam	U.S.A
69	Western Scientific Therapy	460-370 BC	Hippocrates	Greece
70	Yoga	200-100 BC	Patanjali	India

Branch	Concerning Field
Aeronautics	Science of flight of airplanes
Astronomy	Study of heavenly bodies
Agronomy	Science dealing with crop plants
angiology	Deals with the study of blood vascular system
Anthology	Study of flowers
Anthropology	Study of apes and man
Apiculture	Honey industry (Bee Keeping)
Araneology	Study of spiders
Batracology	Study of frogs
Biochemistry	Deals with the study of chemical reactions in relation to life activities
Biotechnology	Deals with the use of micro-organism in commercial processes for producing fine chemicals such as drugs, vaccines, hormones, etc, on a large scale
Cardiology	Study of heart
Craniology	Study of skulls
Cryptography	Study of secret writing
Cryogenics	Study concerning with the application and uses of very low temperature
Cytology	Study of cells
Dermatology	Study of skin
Ecology	The study of relationship between organisms and environment
Entomology	Study of insects
Etiology	Study of cause of disease
Eugenics	Study of improvement of human race by applying laws of heredity. It is related with future generations
Evolution	Deals with the study of origin of new from old
Exbiology	Deals with life or possibilities of life beyond the earth
Floriculture	Study of flower yielding plants
Geology	Study of condition and structure of the earth
Genetics	Study of heredity and variations
Gerontology	Study of growing old
Gynaecology	Study of female reproductive organ
Horticulture	Study of garden cultivation
Haematology	Study of blood
Hepatology	Study of liver
. Iconography	Teaching by pictures and models
Immunology	Science which deals with the study of resistance of organisms against infection
Jurisprudence	Science of law
Kalology	Study of human beauty
Lexicography	Compiling of dictionary
Mycology	Study of fungi
Myology	Study of muscles
Nephrology	Study of kidneys
Neurology	Study of nervous system
Numismatics	Study of coins and medals
Obstetrics	Branch of medicine dealing with pregnancy
Oneirology	Study of dreams
Ophthalmology	Study of eyes
Ornithology	Study of birds
Osteology	Study of bones
Palaeontology	Study of fossils
Philately	Stamp collecting
Philology	Study of language
Phonetics	Concerning the sound of a spoken language
Physiography	Natural phenomenon
Pedology	Study of soils
Pathology	Study of disease causing organisms
Phycology	Study of algae
Physiology	Science dealing with the study of functions of various parts of organisms
Pisciculture	Study of fish
Pomology	Study of fruits
Seismology	Study of earthquakes
Sericulture	Silk industry (culture of silk moth and pupa)
Serpentology	Study of snakes
Telepathy	Communication between two minds at a distance with the help of emotions thoughts and feelings
Taxonomy	Study of classification of organisms
Virology	Study of virus

Cold	Hot	Live	Die
Dry	wet	Long	Short
Love	Hate	Like	Dislike
Question	Answer	Gay	Grave
Asleep	Awake	Rejoice	Mourn
Front	Back	Pleasant	Disagreeable
Joy	Sorrow	Success	Failure
Begin	Cease	Harmony	Discord
Find	Lose	Blessing	Curse
Friend	Enemy	Generous	Mean
Dead	Alive	Velour	Cowardice
Busy	Idle	Bravery	Cowardice
Sweet	Sour	Advance	Retreat
Bright	dull	Arrive	Depart
True	FALSE	Before	After
Start	Finish	Appear	Vanish
Ugly	beautiful	Everywhere	Nowhere
Near	far	Earth	Sea
Kind	cruel	Hill	Valley
Empty	full	Mountain	Plain
Ever	never	Right	Left
Bless	curse	Public	Private
Adult	child	Acute	Obtuse
North	south	Lazy	Industrious
Absent	present	Master	Servant
Poor	rich	Arrive	Depart
Right	wrong	Remember	Forget
Win	lose	Appoint	Dismiss
Peace	war	Knowledge	Ignorance
Rough	smooth	Placid	ruddy
Coarse	fine	Raw	cooked
Top	bottom	Help	hinder
Buy	sell	Accept	refuse
Life	death	Robust	feeble
Proud	humble	Good	bad
Easy	difficult	Big	small
Cheap	dear	Clever	stupid
Inside	outside	Here	there
Give	take	first	last
Hit	miss	early	late
Wide	narrow	fat	thin
Loud	soft	join	separate
Clean	dirty	light	dark
Weep	laugh	Day	night
Collect	disperse	Many	few
Youth	age	All	none
Modern	ancient	often	seldom
Former	latter	fresh	stale
Least	greatest	straight	crooked
Slender	stout	Weak	strong
East	west	Deep	shallow
High	low	Open	close
Upper	lower	Black	white
Higher	lower	praise	blame
Better	worse	This	that
Entrance	exit	These	those
Active	passive	Morning	evening
Noise	silence	Summer	winter
Quiet	noisy	Young	old
Inner	outer	Giant	dwarf
Lend	borrow	Wild	tam
Go	come	Gain	loss
Hard	soft	Happy	sad
Old	new	Daily	nightly
Junior	senior	Health	sickness

Lead	follow	employ	dismiss
Land	water	liberty	slavery
Bow	stern	think	guess
Stationary	moving	work	rest
Dynamic	static	worker	drone
centrifugal	centripetal	familiar	strange
oriental	occidental	freedom	captivity
miser	spendthrift	barren	fruitful
sober	intoxicated	sacred	profane
spacious	limited	virtue	vice
future	past	wisdom	folly
abundance	scarcity	polite	rude
common	rare	proper	common
simply	complex	Attack	Defend
ally	enemy	bashful	bold
teach	learn	inhale	exhale
natural	artificial	expand	contract
polite	saucy	victor	vanquished
summit	base	antecedent	consequent
apex	base	eager	reluctant
cloudy	clear	order	chaos
dawn	duck	certain	doubt
ascend	descend	venial	unpardonable
vacant	occupied	rigid	flexible
hope	despair	novice	veteran
interior	exterior	industry	sloth
permanent	temporary	accelerate	retard
obey	command	benevolent	malevolent
negative	positive	compulsory	voluntary
conceal	reveal	analysis	synthesis
hide	show	surplus	deficit
singular	plural	prosperous	indigent
foreign	native	consent	dissent
smile	frown	include	exclude
multiply	divide	transverse	longitudinal
wax	wane	attract	distract
prosperity	adversity	amateur	professional
victory	defeat	confine	release
superior	inferior	orthodox	heterodox
level	steep	pure	adulterated
liquid	solid	lovely	repulsive
pardon	punish	graceful	hideous
complainant	defendant	pugnacious	peaceful
debtor	creditor	hostile	friendly
rural	urban	gentile	Jew
emigrant	immigrant	monotony	variety
optimist	pessimist	survive	succumb
sincere	insincere	prospective	retrospective
numerous	sparse	premature	overdue
transparent	opaque	caution	recklessness
pedestrian	passenger	force	compel
powerful	feeble	colleague	antagonist
guilty	innocent	prudence	indiscretion
heaven	hell	motionless	agitated
heroic	base	accurate	inaccurate
ancestor	progeny	Indigenous	Exotic
assemble	disperse	Apprehend	Release
condemn	exonerate	Gaiety	Melancholy
slim	stout	Solitary	Populous
minimum	maximum	Sparse	Populated
arrival	departure	Predecessor	Successor
reward	punishment	Confusion	Orderliness
economy	extravagance	Pleasure	Pain
increase	decrease	Convict	Acquit
majority	minority	Engage	Dismiss